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A nurse is caring for a client who had a surgical repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 3 days ago. The clients vital signs are: temperature 38.3° C (100.9° F), heart rate 80/min, respirations 16/min, and blood pressure 128/76 mm Hg. Which of the following actions is the nurses priority?
- A. Administer an antipyretic for the fever.
- B. Encourage the client to ambulate.
- C. Assess the surgical incision for signs of infection.
- D. Increase IV fluid administration.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assess the surgical incision for signs of infection. This is the priority because the client has a fever (indicating possible infection) post-surgery, putting them at risk for complications. Assessing the surgical incision allows for early detection of infection, prompt treatment, and prevention of further complications. Administering an antipyretic (choice A) only addresses the symptom but not the underlying cause. Encouraging ambulation (choice B) and increasing IV fluids (choice D) are important but assessing for infection takes precedence due to the potential severity of an infected surgical site.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic venous insufficiency. Which of the following areas should the nurse assess for the presence of a venous ulcer?
- A. Tip of the toes
- B. Medial malleolus (ankle)
- C. Ball of the foot
- D. Heel of the foot
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medial malleolus (ankle). Venous ulcers commonly occur in areas where there is poor circulation, such as the lower legs. The medial malleolus is a common site for venous ulcers in individuals with chronic venous insufficiency due to pooling of blood in the lower extremities. Assessing this area is crucial for early detection and appropriate management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as venous ulcers typically develop in areas with high venous pressure and poor circulation, such as the lower legs, not at the tip of the toes, ball of the foot, or heel.
A nurse is caring for a client who has multiple leg fractures and is 24 hr postoperative following placement of skeletal traction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Inspect the pin sites at least every 8 hr.
- B. Apply direct pressure to pin sites.
- C. Remove traction weights for comfort.
- D. Encourage vigorous movement of the affected limb.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Inspect the pin sites at least every 8 hr.
Rationale:
1. Inspecting pin sites regularly is crucial to monitor for signs of infection or other complications.
2. Postoperative clients with skeletal traction are at high risk for pin site infections.
3. Regular inspection allows early detection and intervention to prevent complications.
4. Waiting longer than every 8 hours may lead to delayed identification of issues.
Summary:
B. Applying direct pressure is contraindicated as it can cause harm.
C. Removing traction weights without medical order can lead to complications.
D. Encouraging vigorous movement is inappropriate and can cause harm.
A nurse is caring for a male client who has a new prescription for cyclosporine following a kidney transplant. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this therapy?
- A. BUN 24 mg/dL
- B. Blood glucose 95 mg/dL
- C. Platelets 250
- D. 000/mm³
- E. Hemoglobin 14 g/Dl
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: BUN 24 mg/dL. Cyclosporine, an immunosuppressant medication, can cause nephrotoxicity as an adverse effect. An elevated BUN level indicates impaired kidney function, which can be a consequence of cyclosporine therapy. Blood glucose level (choice B) and platelet count (choice C) are not typically affected by cyclosporine. Hemoglobin level (choice E) is not directly related to cyclosporine therapy. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant for signs of nephrotoxicity by monitoring the client's BUN level.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for phenytoin to treat a seizure disorder. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report immediately to the provider?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Gingival hyperplasia
- C. Skin rash
- D. Mild nausea
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Skin rash. This is because phenytoin can cause severe and potentially life-threatening skin reactions like Stevens-Johnson syndrome or toxic epidermal necrolysis. These reactions can progress rapidly, so immediate medical attention is crucial. Drowsiness (A) is a common side effect of phenytoin but not typically an emergency. Gingival hyperplasia (B) and mild nausea (D) are common side effects that do not require immediate reporting.
A nurse is assessing a clients understanding of a surgical procedure prior to witnessing their signature on the informed consent form. The nurse determines that the client does not understand what the procedure will involve. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Proceed with obtaining the signature.
- B. Explain the procedure in detail.
- C. Contact the provider who will be performing the procedure.
- D. Have the client sign the form and address concerns later.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Contact the provider who will be performing the procedure. This is the best course of action because the provider is the most qualified individual to explain the procedure in detail and address any concerns the client may have. By involving the provider, the client can receive accurate and comprehensive information directly from the source. Proceeding with obtaining the signature (A) without ensuring the client's understanding can lead to potential legal and ethical issues. Explaining the procedure in detail (B) may not be sufficient if the client still has questions or concerns. Having the client sign the form and addressing concerns later (D) is not appropriate as it prioritizes paperwork over patient understanding and safety.