Nokea
An older male client tells the nurse that he is losing sleep because he has to get up several times at night to go to the bathroom, that he has trouble starting his urinary stream, and that he does not feel like his bladder is ever completely empty. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Collect a urine specimen for culture analysis
- B. Review the client's fluid intake prior to bedtime
- C. Palpate the bladder above the symphysis pubis
- D. Obtain a fingerstick glucose level
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Palpating the bladder above the symphysis pubis is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. It helps assess for urinary retention, which is a common issue in older males presenting with symptoms like difficulty starting urinary stream and feeling of incomplete bladder emptying. Collecting a urine specimen for culture analysis (Choice A) may be necessary in other situations like suspected urinary tract infection. Reviewing the client's fluid intake (Choice B) is important but does not directly address the current issue of urinary retention. Obtaining a fingerstick glucose level (Choice D) is not relevant to the client's urinary symptoms.
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A client with diabetes mellitus presents with confusion and diaphoresis. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Check the blood glucose level
- B. Administer insulin immediately
- C. Offer a high-protein snack
- D. Place the client in a supine position
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the blood glucose level. In a client with diabetes mellitus presenting with confusion and diaphoresis, it is important to assess the blood glucose level first to determine if the symptoms are due to hypoglycemia. Administering insulin immediately (Choice B) without knowing the blood glucose level can worsen the condition if the client is hypoglycemic. Offering a high-protein snack (Choice C) is not appropriate as the severity of hypoglycemia is unknown, and placing the client in a supine position (Choice D) is not the priority action for these symptoms.
A male client with heart failure calls the clinic and reports that he cannot put his shoes on because they are too tight. Which additional information should the nurse obtain?
- A. What time he took his medication?
- B. Has his weight changed in the last several days?
- C. Is he still able to tighten his belt buckle?
- D. How many hours he slept last night?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Has his weight changed in the last several days?' Sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention, which is a common symptom of worsening heart failure. The inability to put on tight shoes can be due to fluid retention leading to swelling in the feet and ankles. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the potential fluid retention issue and are less relevant in this scenario.
A new mother asks the clinic nurse if she must continue giving her baby nystatin for thrush since the white lesions on his tongue have disappeared. What response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. No. When the lesions have disappeared, you may stop the nystatin.
- B. Yes. You should continue it for the full 7 days.
- C. No. Thrush is a self-limiting disorder, and nystatin is given for complete treatment.
- D. Yes. The medication should be refilled for a second week of therapy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because nystatin should be given for the full 7 days even if the lesions are no longer present. Continuing the treatment for the prescribed duration ensures complete eradication of the fungal infection. Choice A is incorrect as stopping the medication prematurely may lead to the reoccurrence of thrush. Choice C is inaccurate as nystatin is not just for comfort but for effective treatment. Choice D is incorrect as refilling the medication for a second week without medical advice may lead to unnecessary prolonged use and potential side effects.
Which laboratory results should the nurse anticipate to be abnormal in a child with hemophilia?
- A. Prothrombin time
- B. Bleeding time
- C. Platelet count
- D. Partial thromboplastin time
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a child with hemophilia, the nurse should anticipate an abnormality in the partial thromboplastin time (PTT) due to the deficiency in clotting factors. Prothrombin time, bleeding time, and platelet count are typically normal in hemophilia. Prothrombin time measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not affected in hemophilia. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, which is normal in hemophilia as the issue lies with clotting proteins, not platelets. Platelet count is also expected to be normal unless there is another underlying condition affecting platelet production or function.
A client with a history of chronic pain requests a nonopioid analgesic. The client is alert but has difficulty describing the exact nature and location of the pain to the nurse. What action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Administer the analgesic as requested.
- B. Request a pain assessment from another nurse.
- C. Ask the client to describe the pain more precisely.
- D. Delay administration until the pain is better described.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement next is to delay administration until the pain is better described. It is essential to have a clear understanding of the nature and location of the pain before administering any analgesic to ensure appropriate and effective pain management. Requesting a pain assessment from another nurse or asking the client to describe the pain more precisely would also be appropriate actions to obtain more information before administering the analgesic. Administering the analgesic as requested without a clear description of the pain may not address the client's needs effectively and could potentially lead to ineffective pain management.