The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a chest tube. Which finding indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
- B. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
- C. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber
- D. Fluid level in the suction control chamber is below the prescribed level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tidaling in the water seal chamber indicates proper chest tube function. Tidaling refers to the rise and fall of fluid in the water seal with inhalation and exhalation, demonstrating the patency of the system. Continuous bubbling (Choice A) in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber (Choice C) is not a desired finding as it suggests no drainage is occurring. A fluid level below the prescribed level in the suction control chamber (Choice D) may indicate inadequate suction.
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The nurse is caring for a child who has been diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). What is the most important intervention for the nurse?
- A. Help the child enroll in a special education class.
- B. Allay any feelings of guilt the parents may have.
- C. Explain to the parents that medications are lifelong.
- D. Teach the parents how to set limits.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse in caring for a child with ADHD is to allay any feelings of guilt the parents may have. Parents of children with ADHD often experience guilt or self-blame, thinking they are responsible for their child's condition. By addressing and alleviating these feelings, the nurse can support the parents in a crucial way. Choice A is not the most important intervention because enrolling the child in a special education class might be a consideration but does not address the emotional needs of the parents. Choice C is incorrect because stating that medications are lifelong may cause unnecessary distress to the parents. Choice D is also not the most important intervention as setting limits is important but not as critical as addressing parental guilt and emotions.
An older female client has normal saline infusing at 45 ml/hour. She complains of pain at the insertion of the IV catheter. There is no redness or edema around the IV site. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Determine what IV medications have recently been administered.
- B. Slow the infusion rate.
- C. Apply a warm compress to the IV site.
- D. Discontinue the IV line and start a new one.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to determine what IV medications have recently been administered. This is important to identify if the pain at the IV site is related to a medication infusion. Slowing the infusion rate (choice B) may not address the underlying cause of the pain. Applying a warm compress (choice C) is not necessary since there is no redness or edema around the IV site. Discontinuing the IV line and starting a new one (choice D) is a drastic step and should not be the first action taken without investigating the cause of the pain.
A client with diabetes mellitus presents with confusion and diaphoresis. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Check the blood glucose level
- B. Administer insulin immediately
- C. Offer a high-protein snack
- D. Place the client in a supine position
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the blood glucose level. In a client with diabetes mellitus presenting with confusion and diaphoresis, it is important to assess the blood glucose level first to determine if the symptoms are due to hypoglycemia. Administering insulin immediately (Choice B) without knowing the blood glucose level can worsen the condition if the client is hypoglycemic. Offering a high-protein snack (Choice C) is not appropriate as the severity of hypoglycemia is unknown, and placing the client in a supine position (Choice D) is not the priority action for these symptoms.
A client with Cushing's Syndrome is recovering from an elective laparoscopic procedure. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Irregular apical pulse
- B. Purple marks on the skin of the abdomen
- C. Quarter-sized blood spot on the dressing
- D. Pitting ankle edema
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irregular apical pulse. In a client recovering from a laparoscopic procedure with Cushing's Syndrome, an irregular apical pulse can be indicative of a life-threatening arrhythmia and requires immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not as urgent as an irregular apical pulse. Purple marks on the skin of the abdomen may be related to Cushing's Syndrome, a quarter-sized blood spot on the dressing can be managed with appropriate wound care, and pitting ankle edema may be expected postoperatively but does not require immediate intervention.
Ten hours following thrombolysis for an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), a client is receiving a lidocaine infusion for isolated runs of ventricular tachycardia. Which finding should the nurse document in the EMR as a therapeutic response to the lidocaine infusion?
- A. Stabilization of BP ranges
- B. Cessation of chest pain
- C. Reduced heart rate
- D. Decreased frequency of episodes of VT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Decreased frequency of ventricular tachycardia (VT) episodes indicates that the lidocaine infusion is effectively managing the ventricular tachycardia. Stabilization of BP ranges (choice A) may not directly correlate with the therapeutic response to lidocaine for VT. Cessation of chest pain (choice B) may indicate pain relief but does not specifically address the effectiveness of lidocaine for VT. Reduced heart rate (choice C) is not a direct indicator of the response to lidocaine for managing VT.