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A client who is being discharged to home asks the practical nurse (PN) for a dose of hydrocodone before leaving the hospital. How should the PN respond to this client's request?
- A. Determine if a take-home prescription for hydrocodone was provided and, if so, tell him to take one of them.
- B. Encourage him to wait until he is at home to take a medication that might impair reasoning.
- C. Give him a tablet from the hospital stock and tell him to wait until he is almost home to take it.
- D. Ask him to describe the location and severity of the pain and to rate it on a scale from 1 to 10.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
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A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Nausea
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Insomnia
- D. Headache
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Venlafaxine, a medication used for generalized anxiety disorder, can commonly cause nausea as a side effect. It is essential for clients to be aware of this potential side effect and advised to take the medication with food if nausea occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, insomnia, and headache are less commonly associated side effects of venlafaxine compared to nausea.
What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer?
- A. Take this medication in the morning before breakfast.
- B. Take this medication with meals.
- C. Avoid taking this medication with antacids.
- D. Take this medication at bedtime.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. This timing helps reduce stomach acid production throughout the day, providing optimal therapeutic effects. Option B is incorrect because taking ranitidine with meals is not the recommended timing. Option C is incorrect as there is no specific contraindication against taking ranitidine with antacids. Option D is incorrect as the medication should not be taken at bedtime but rather in the morning before breakfast.
How does omeprazole work in treating a peptic ulcer?
- A. Increasing the production of gastric acid
- B. Neutralizing stomach acid
- C. Coating the stomach lining
- D. Reducing gastric acid secretion
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing gastric acid secretion. By inhibiting the enzyme responsible for pumping acid into the stomach, omeprazole helps decrease the acidity level in the stomach, providing relief from peptic ulcers. Option A is incorrect because omeprazole does not increase gastric acid production; instead, it decreases it. Option B is incorrect as omeprazole does not neutralize existing stomach acid but rather reduces its secretion. Option C is incorrect as omeprazole does not coat the stomach lining but acts on reducing acid secretion.
A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed oxcarbazepine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Hyponatremia
- B. Agranulocytosis
- C. Liver toxicity
- D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyponatremia. Oxcarbazepine, an anticonvulsant used in bipolar disorder, can lead to hyponatremia. This is because it can cause the body to retain water, leading to a dilution of sodium levels in the blood. Monitoring sodium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as confusion, seizures, and even coma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Agranulocytosis is not typically associated with oxcarbazepine use. Liver toxicity is a potential adverse effect of some medications but not commonly seen with oxcarbazepine. While weight gain can be a side effect of certain medications used in bipolar disorder treatment, it is not a common adverse effect of oxcarbazepine.
A client has metoprolol prescribed. The nurse should reinforce instructions that this medication has which potential adverse effect?
- A. Anxiety
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Sexual dysfunction
- D. Acute renal failure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sexual dysfunction. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can cause sexual dysfunction as an adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because metoprolol can cause depression, not anxiety. Choice B is incorrect as tachycardia is not an adverse effect of metoprolol; instead, it can lead to bradycardia. Choice D is incorrect because acute renal failure is not typically associated with the use of beta-blockers.