Nokea
A client is prescribed an antacid for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease. What is the action of this medication that is effective in treating the client's ulcer?
- A. Decrease in the production of gastric secretions
- B. Production of an adherent barrier over the ulcer
- C. Maintenance of a gastric pH of 3.5 or above
- D. Decrease in the gastric motor activity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Antacids work by neutralizing gastric acids and maintaining a gastric pH of 3.5 or above. This pH level is crucial to prevent the activation of pepsinogen, a precursor to pepsin, which can further damage the ulcer. Choice A is incorrect because antacids do not directly decrease the production of gastric secretions; they neutralize existing acid. Choice B is incorrect as antacids do not form a physical barrier over the ulcer but rather neutralize the acid around it. Choice D is also incorrect as antacids do not affect gastric motor activity but focus on reducing acidity in the stomach.
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What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer?
- A. Take this medication in the morning before breakfast.
- B. Take this medication with meals.
- C. Avoid taking this medication with antacids.
- D. Take this medication at bedtime.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. This timing helps reduce stomach acid production throughout the day, providing optimal therapeutic effects. Option B is incorrect because taking ranitidine with meals is not the recommended timing. Option C is incorrect as there is no specific contraindication against taking ranitidine with antacids. Option D is incorrect as the medication should not be taken at bedtime but rather in the morning before breakfast.
A client admitted with shortness of breath and palpitations currently takes an antiarrhythmic medication, dronedarone. Which action should the nurse take to prevent arrhythmias?
- A. Measure orthostatic blood pressure
- B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG reading daily
- C. Assess the client's apical pulse daily
- D. Provide continuous ECG monitoring
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action to prevent arrhythmias in a client taking an antiarrhythmic medication like dronedarone is to provide continuous ECG monitoring. This is essential because antiarrhythmic drugs can sometimes cause pro-arrhythmic effects, which may lead to dangerous heart rhythm disturbances. Continuous ECG monitoring allows for real-time detection of any abnormal rhythms, enabling prompt intervention. Measuring orthostatic blood pressure, obtaining a 12-lead ECG reading daily, and assessing the client's apical pulse daily are important assessments in general patient care but may not specifically prevent arrhythmias in this scenario.
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed metformin. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take this medication with meals.
- B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Report any signs of lactic acidosis to the healthcare provider.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed metformin is to take the medication with meals. Taking metformin with meals helps to minimize gastrointestinal side effects, which are common with this medication. Choice B, avoiding alcohol, is a good practice due to the increased risk of lactic acidosis when alcohol is consumed with metformin; however, it is not the priority teaching point in this scenario. Taking metformin on an empty stomach (Choice C) is incorrect because it can increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Reporting signs of lactic acidosis (Choice D) is important, but it is more related to monitoring for adverse effects rather than a primary teaching point for administration.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed albuterol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Nausea
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Albuterol, a bronchodilator commonly used in COPD, can cause tachycardia as a potential side effect due to its beta-agonist properties that can stimulate the heart. Nausea (Choice B), dry mouth (Choice C), and weight gain (Choice D) are less likely associated with albuterol use. Nausea and dry mouth are not common side effects of albuterol, and weight gain is not typically linked to its use. Therefore, the nurse should primarily monitor for tachycardia when a client is prescribed albuterol for COPD.
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed rivaroxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Dizziness
- D. Headache
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is weight gain. Rivaroxaban, an anticoagulant, may lead to weight gain as a side effect due to fluid retention. Dry mouth (choice B), dizziness (choice C), and headache (choice D) are not typically associated with rivaroxaban use. Therefore, monitoring for weight gain is crucial to detect and manage this potential side effect in the client.