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Twenty-four hours after starting to take oral penicillin for strep throat, a client calls the nurse to report the onset of a rash on the chest. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Instruct the client to discontinue the penicillin immediately
- B. Instruct the client regarding the use of topical analgesic cream PRN
- C. Question the client about any other related symptoms
- D. Reinforce the need to take all doses of the penicillin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client has developed a rash after starting oral penicillin, which can indicate an allergic reaction. It is crucial for the nurse to instruct the client to discontinue the penicillin immediately. Continuing the medication can potentially lead to severe allergic reactions. Instructing about topical analgesic cream or questioning about other related symptoms may delay appropriate action in case of a severe allergic reaction. Reinforcing the need to complete all doses is not appropriate when an allergic reaction is suspected, as safety takes precedence over completing the antibiotic course.
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A client with chronic pain is prescribed oxycodone. What instruction should the practical nurse (PN) include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take the medication with meals to avoid gastrointestinal upset.
- B. Avoid taking the medication with alcohol.
- C. Increase fluid intake to avoid constipation.
- D. Report any signs of respiratory depression to the healthcare provider.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid taking oxycodone with alcohol. Mixing oxycodone with alcohol can lead to serious side effects, including respiratory depression. Taking the medication with meals may not always be necessary, and instructions about fluid intake to avoid constipation are important but not the priority when considering the immediate risks associated with oxycodone. While reporting signs of respiratory depression is crucial, preventing it by avoiding alcohol is key in the client's safety.
A client has metoprolol prescribed. The nurse should reinforce instructions that this medication has which potential adverse effect?
- A. Anxiety
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Sexual dysfunction
- D. Acute renal failure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sexual dysfunction. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can cause sexual dysfunction as an adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because metoprolol can cause depression, not anxiety. Choice B is incorrect as tachycardia is not an adverse effect of metoprolol; instead, it can lead to bradycardia. Choice D is incorrect because acute renal failure is not typically associated with the use of beta-blockers.
A client with hypertension is prescribed valsartan. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker that can cause hypotension as a side effect by dilating blood vessels. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to prevent complications related to low blood pressure. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect because valsartan typically does not cause an increase in heart rate. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not a common side effect of valsartan. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is also unlikely with valsartan use.
What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer?
- A. Take this medication in the morning before breakfast.
- B. Take this medication with meals.
- C. Avoid taking this medication with antacids.
- D. Take this medication at bedtime.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. This timing helps reduce stomach acid production throughout the day, providing optimal therapeutic effects. Option B is incorrect because taking ranitidine with meals is not the recommended timing. Option C is incorrect as there is no specific contraindication against taking ranitidine with antacids. Option D is incorrect as the medication should not be taken at bedtime but rather in the morning before breakfast.
A patient with irritable bowel syndrome starts a new prescription for dicyclomine, an anticholinergic medication. The client reports the onset of sensitivity to light and a dry mouth. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Determine if the medication is being taken correctly
- B. Provide instructions on managing these side effects
- C. Schedule an appointment for evaluation by the healthcare provider
- D. Advise stopping the medication until the unpleasant side effects wear off
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is to provide instructions on managing these side effects. Sensitivity to light and dry mouth are common side effects of anticholinergic medications like dicyclomine. It is essential for the nurse to educate the patient on strategies to cope with these side effects, such as staying hydrated to address dry mouth and wearing sunglasses to reduce sensitivity to light. Option A is not the priority as the side effects are expected with this medication and do not necessarily indicate incorrect use. Option C is not immediately necessary as the side effects are common and can be managed without a healthcare provider evaluation. Option D is not recommended unless advised by the healthcare provider as abruptly stopping the medication can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects.