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A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed bupropion. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. This medication may cause weight gain.
- B. This medication may take several weeks to take effect.
- C. I should avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. I should take this medication in the morning with food.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because bupropion is associated with weight loss rather than weight gain. It is important for the client to be aware of this potential side effect. Choice B is correct because bupropion may take several weeks to exhibit its full therapeutic effects. Choice C is also accurate as alcohol consumption should be avoided while taking bupropion due to the risk of seizures. Choice D is correct as taking bupropion in the morning with food can help reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects.
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Which assessment finding indicates that the expected outcome of administering donepezil to a client with Alzheimer's disease has been accomplished?
- A. Increased muscle strength and tone
- B. Fewer episodes of urinary incontinence
- C. Decreased confusion and improved mood
- D. Reversal of the disease process as evidenced by increased functioning
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Donepezil is a medication used for individuals with Alzheimer's disease. Its mechanism of action involves increasing acetylcholine levels by inhibiting its breakdown, which benefits cognitive function. The expected outcome of administering donepezil is a decrease in confusion and an improvement in mood due to the medication's impact on neurotransmitters. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because donepezil does not primarily target muscle strength, urinary incontinence, or disease reversal; instead, it aims to slow down the progression of cognitive decline in Alzheimer's disease.
A client vomits 30 minutes after receiving a dose of hydromorphone on the first postoperative day. What initial intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?
- A. Obtain a prescription for nasogastric intubation.
- B. Administer a prn dose of ondansetron.
- C. Reduce the next scheduled dose of hydromorphone.
- D. Assess the client's abdomen and bowel sounds.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's vomiting is likely due to the hydromorphone administration, indicating a need for an antiemetic such as ondansetron to address the nausea. Nasogastric intubation (Choice A) is not necessary at this point as the client is vomiting, not experiencing an obstruction. While reducing the dose of hydromorphone (Choice C) may be considered later, the immediate focus should be managing the client's symptoms. Assessing the client's abdomen and bowel sounds (Choice D) can be important but is not the initial priority when addressing the vomiting post hydromorphone administration.
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed empagliflozin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Genital infections
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Nausea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Genital infections. Empagliflozin, a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes, is associated with an increased risk of genital infections. This is due to its mechanism of action, which involves promoting the excretion of glucose through urine, creating a more favorable environment for fungal or bacterial growth in the genital area. Choices B and C, hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, are less likely adverse effects of empagliflozin. Empagliflozin actually carries a low risk of causing hypoglycemia since it works independently of insulin. Nausea (Choice D) is not a commonly reported adverse effect of empagliflozin, making it an incorrect choice in this scenario.
How does omeprazole work in treating a peptic ulcer?
- A. Increasing the production of gastric acid
- B. Neutralizing stomach acid
- C. Coating the stomach lining
- D. Reducing gastric acid secretion
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing gastric acid secretion. By inhibiting the enzyme responsible for pumping acid into the stomach, omeprazole helps decrease the acidity level in the stomach, providing relief from peptic ulcers. Option A is incorrect because omeprazole does not increase gastric acid production; instead, it decreases it. Option B is incorrect as omeprazole does not neutralize existing stomach acid but rather reduces its secretion. Option C is incorrect as omeprazole does not coat the stomach lining but acts on reducing acid secretion.
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed metformin. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take this medication with meals.
- B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Report any signs of lactic acidosis to the healthcare provider.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed metformin is to take the medication with meals. Taking metformin with meals helps to minimize gastrointestinal side effects, which are common with this medication. Choice B, avoiding alcohol, is a good practice due to the increased risk of lactic acidosis when alcohol is consumed with metformin; however, it is not the priority teaching point in this scenario. Taking metformin on an empty stomach (Choice C) is incorrect because it can increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Reporting signs of lactic acidosis (Choice D) is important, but it is more related to monitoring for adverse effects rather than a primary teaching point for administration.