Nokea
In contrast to placenta previa, what is the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae?
- A. Bleeding.
- B. Intense abdominal pain.
- C. Uterine activity.
- D. Cramping.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intense abdominal pain. Pain is absent with placenta previa but can be agonizing with abruptio placentae. While bleeding may be present in varying degrees for both placental conditions, intense abdominal pain is a distinguishing feature of abruptio placentae. Uterine activity and cramping may be present with both placental conditions, but they are not the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae.
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According to a study in 2014 by Skakkebaek et al., who among the following is most likely to have gynecomastia?
- A. Jennifer, a dancer, who has Down syndrome
- B. Frank, a teacher, who is diagnosed with XYY syndrome
- C. Peter, a fashion designer, who has Klinefelter syndrome
- D. Ria, a gym instructor, who is diagnosed with Turner syndrome
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome have an extra X chromosome (XXY) and typically have reduced testosterone levels, which can lead to gynecomastia (enlarged breasts). This condition is not usually associated with Down syndrome (choice A), XYY syndrome (choice B), or Turner syndrome (choice D), making them less likely to have gynecomastia.
A primigravida is being monitored at the prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. Which finding is of greatest concern to the nurse?
- A. Blood pressure (BP) increased to 138/86 mm Hg.
- B. Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks.
- C. Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine.
- D. Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Proteinuria, indicated by a dipstick value of 3+ in the urine, is a significant concern in a patient being monitored for preeclampsia. Proteinuria is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, and a value of 3+ signifies a substantial amount of protein in the urine, warranting further evaluation. While an increase in blood pressure to 138/86 mm Hg is slightly elevated, it does not meet the diagnostic threshold for severe hypertension in preeclampsia. A weight gain of 0.5 kg over 2 weeks is within normal limits and not as concerning as significant rapid weight gain. Pitting pedal edema, though common in pregnancy, is not a specific indicator of preeclampsia and is considered a less concerning finding compared to significant proteinuria.
What causes Down's syndrome?
- A. Alcohol abuse by the mother at the time of conception.
- B. Sex-linked chromosomal abnormalities.
- C. An extra chromosome on the 21st pair.
- D. Drug abuse by the mother during pregnancy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Down's syndrome, also known as trisomy 21, is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair. Choice A is incorrect as alcohol abuse is not the cause of Down's syndrome. Choice B is incorrect because Down's syndrome is not related to sex-linked chromosomal abnormalities. Choice D is also incorrect as drug abuse by the mother during pregnancy is not the cause of Down's syndrome.
When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, which clinical finding will alert the nurse that uterine contractions are effective?
- A. Dilation of the cervix.
- B. Descent of the fetus to -2 station.
- C. Rupture of the amniotic membranes.
- D. Increase in bloody show.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During the first stage of labor, effective uterine contractions lead to cervical dilation. Dilation of the cervix is a key indicator that uterine contractions are progressing labor. Descent of the fetus to -2 station (Choice B) is related to the fetal position in the pelvis and not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness. Rupture of the amniotic membranes (Choice C) signifies the rupture of the fluid-filled sac surrounding the fetus and does not directly reflect uterine contraction effectiveness. An increase in bloody show (Choice D) can be a sign of impending labor, but it is not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness.
The nurse is providing care for a newborn who was delivered vaginally assisted by forceps. The nurse observes red marks on the head with swelling that does not cross the suture line. Which condition should the nurse document in the medical record?
- A. Caput succedaneum
- B. Hydrocephalus
- C. Cephalhematoma
- D. Microcephaly
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Cephalhematoma. Cephalhematoma is a collection of blood between the skull bone and periosteum that does not cross the suture line. It often occurs due to birth trauma, such as forceps delivery, leading to localized swelling. Caput succedaneum (Choice A) is diffuse swelling of the scalp that may cross suture lines and is typically present at birth. Hydrocephalus (Choice B) is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain's ventricles. Microcephaly (Choice D) is a condition characterized by a smaller than average head size and may be present at birth or develop later in infancy.