The nurse is teaching a male adolescent recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) about self-injecting insulin. Which approach is best for the nurse to use to evaluate the effectiveness of the teaching?
- A. Observe him demonstrating the self-injection technique to another diabetic adolescent.
- B. Ask the adolescent to describe his comfort level with injecting himself with insulin.
- C. Review his glycosylated hemoglobin level 3 months after the teaching session.
- D. Have the adolescent list the steps for safe insulin administration.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Reviewing the glycosylated hemoglobin level after a few months is the best approach to evaluate the effectiveness of teaching self-injection. This measurement provides an objective indicator of the adolescent's glucose control over time, reflecting the impact of insulin self-administration education. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the long-term impact of the teaching on the adolescent's diabetes management.
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A high school football player comes to the clinic complaining of severe acne. The mother reports recent behavior changes, including irritability and suspiciousness of friends. The nurse's assessment reveals an elevated blood pressure. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Encourage the client to see a dermatologist
- B. Refer the adolescent to a substance abuse program
- C. Suggest a low-salt, low-fat, and caffeine-free diet
- D. Inquire about a possible use of anabolic steroids
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the high school football player presenting with severe acne, behavior changes, elevated blood pressure, and suspicion of friends suggests the possible use of anabolic steroids. Anabolic steroid use can lead to such symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should first inquire about the possible use of anabolic steroids to address the root cause of the presenting issues. Encouraging the client to see a dermatologist (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the underlying cause is crucial first. Referring the adolescent to a substance abuse program (Choice B) is premature without confirming steroid use. Suggesting a low-salt, low-fat, and caffeine-free diet (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation where a serious issue like anabolic steroid use needs immediate attention.
A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106 mmHg and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him feel bad. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?
- A. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
- B. Acute kidney injury due to glomerular damage
- C. Heart block due to myocardial damage
- D. Blindness secondary to cataracts
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stroke secondary to hemorrhage. Hypertension increases the risk of stroke due to the stress and damage it causes to blood vessels, which can lead to hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect because acute kidney injury is more commonly associated with chronic uncontrolled hypertension, not acute elevations. Choice C is incorrect as heart block is not a direct consequence of hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as hypertension does not directly cause cataracts leading to blindness.
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client with acute gastritis caused by drinking contaminated water. The nurse should emphasize the need to report the onset of which problem?
- A. Low-grade fever
- B. Bruising of the skin
- C. Abdominal cramping
- D. Bloody emesis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bloody emesis. Bloody emesis indicates potential bleeding or severe irritation, which should be reported immediately. In the context of acute gastritis, bloody emesis could indicate a more serious complication that requires urgent medical attention. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with acute gastritis caused by contaminated water and do not signal as critical of a condition as bloody emesis. Low-grade fever, bruising of the skin, and abdominal cramping are more commonly associated with other conditions or may be less urgent in this context.
A client with eczema is experiencing severe pruritus. Which PRN prescription should the nurse administer?
- A. Topical corticosteroid
- B. Topical scabicide
- C. Topical alcohol rub
- D. Transdermal analgesic
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Topical corticosteroid. Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to manage itching in eczema by reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune response. In this case, for severe pruritus in eczema, a topical corticosteroid would be appropriate. Choice B, Topical scabicide, is used to treat scabies, not eczema. Choice C, Topical alcohol rub, is not typically used to manage pruritus in eczema. Choice D, Transdermal analgesic, is more for pain relief and not specifically targeted at managing itching associated with eczema.
The client who had a below-the-knee (BKA) amputation is being prepared for discharge to home. Which recommendation should the nurse provide this client?
- A. Inspect skin for redness
- B. Use a residual limb shrinker
- C. Apply alcohol to the stump after bathing
- D. Wash the stump with soap and water
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with a below-the-knee amputation preparing for discharge is to wash the stump with soap and water. This helps maintain cleanliness and prevent infection. Inspecting the skin for redness is important to monitor for signs of infection, but it is not a specific recommendation for a BKA amputation. Using a residual limb shrinker can aid in shaping and reducing swelling in the residual limb but is not usually done immediately after a BKA amputation. Applying alcohol to the stump after bathing is not recommended as it can lead to skin irritation and dryness.