A 52-year-old overweight woman presents to the clinic for a diabetes management. She had not been doing well controlling her blood sugars with metformin. Her last hemoglobin A1c was 13.4%, despite her taking her medication every day. The physician decides to start her on a long-acting insulin that is injected only once a day for better glucose control. Also, he wants the insulin to have a minimal risk of hypoglycemia. What is the most likely medication given to this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting, peakless insulin administered once daily, with a lower risk of hypoglycemia compared to other insulins.