While a team effort is necessary in the operating room (OR) for efficient and quality patient care delivery, the number of people in the room should be limited for infection control purposes. Which roles comprise this team?
- A. Surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub nurse, radiologist, orderly
- B. Surgeon, assistants, scrub nurse, circulating nurse, anesthesiologist
- C. Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub nurse, pathologist
- D. Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anesthesiologist, intern, scrub nurse
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The roles typically present in an operating room team include the surgeon, assistants (which may include an assistant surgeon), scrub nurse, circulating nurse, and anesthesiologist. These roles are directly involved in the operation and patient care. Choice B is correct. Choice A includes a radiologist and an orderly, who are not typically part of the immediate surgical team in the OR. Choice C includes a pathologist, who usually works in a laboratory outside of the OR. Choice D includes an intern, who may or may not be part of the team, depending on the specific circumstances and hospital policy. These explanations make choices A, C, and D incorrect.
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What is the name of the record that shows all medications and treatments provided on a repeated basis?
- A. Nursing Health History and Assessment Worksheet
- B. Discharge Summary
- C. Nursing Kardex
- D. Medicine and Treatment Record
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The 'Medicine and Treatment Record' is the document that maintains a comprehensive log of all medications and treatments provided on a routine basis. It does not refer to the 'Discharge Summary', which is a clinical report prepared by healthcare professionals at the end of a hospital stay or series of treatments. The 'Nursing Health History and Assessment Worksheet' is used to gather comprehensive data about the patient's health history and current health status, but it does not record ongoing treatment details. The 'Nursing Kardex' is a patient care information system used to quickly communicate patient needs, but it does not consistently record all medications and treatments provided.
Which of the following interventions should be considered the highest priority when caring for June, who has hemiparesis secondary to a stroke?
- A. Position June in an upright lateral position
- B. Perform range of motion exercises
- C. Apply antiembolic stockings
- D. Use hand rolls or pillows for support
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Apply antiembolic stockings'. In the case of a patient who has experienced a stroke and is suffering from hemiparesis, the highest priority intervention is to prevent further complications such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can be life-threatening. Antiembolic stockings are used to increase venous blood flow velocity and reduce the risk of DVT. Choice 'A', positioning June in an upright lateral position, while important for overall care, is not the highest priority. Choice 'B', performing range of motion exercises, is an important part of recovery but not the immediate priority. Choice 'D', using hand rolls or pillows for support, is also a valuable intervention but does not address the most pressing risk of further complications.
Which adolescent student lunch, evaluated by the school nurse, is the least nutritious?
- A. Ham sandwich, apple, and milk
- B. Hamburger, fries, and soft drink
- C. Macaroni and cheese, green beans, and peaches
- D. Meatloaf, broccoli, and pear slices
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hamburger, fries, and soft drink. This meal is considered the least nutritious among the options provided due to its high content of unhealthy fats, processed carbohydrates, and added sugars, which lack essential nutrients. On the other hand, choice A: Ham sandwich, apple, and milk, offers a balanced meal with protein, fiber, vitamins, and calcium. Choice C: Macaroni and cheese, green beans, and peaches, provides a mixture of carbohydrates, vegetables, and fruits. Choice D: Meatloaf, broccoli, and pear slices, includes protein, fiber, and vitamins. Thus, all choices except B provide a more balanced and nutritious meal.
When assessing older adult clients for malnutrition at an adult day care center, which risk factors should the nurse consider?
- A. Dental problems
- B. Depression
- C. Both A and B
- D. Ability to prepare meals
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Both A and B. Dental problems and depression are both significant risk factors for malnutrition in older adults. Dental problems can lead to difficulty in chewing and swallowing, resulting in reduced food intake. On the other hand, depression can cause changes in appetite and decreased interest in eating, which can also contribute to malnutrition. Although the ability to prepare meals is important, it is not specifically identified as a risk factor for malnutrition within the context of this question. Therefore, choices A and B are the most appropriate answers.
Which of the following is reflected in an ECG due to hypokalemia?
- A. Tall T waves and Pathologic Q wave
- B. Widening QRS Complex and U wave
- C. None of the above
- D. Both A and B
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood, is reflected in an ECG by a widening QRS Complex and a U wave. This is because potassium plays a key role in the electrical activity of the heart, and its deficiency can lead to abnormalities in the heart's rhythm as represented by these specific changes on the ECG. Choice A is incorrect as tall T waves and pathologic Q waves are more commonly associated with hyperkalemia or myocardial infarction, respectively, rather than hypokalemia. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the ECG changes caused by hypokalemia.