Nokea
A nurse is admitting a client to the birthing unit who reports her contractions started 1 hr ago. The nurse determines the client is 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated. The nurse realizes that the client is at risk for which of the following conditions?
- A. Ectopic pregnancy
- B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
- C. Incompetent cervix
- D. Postpartum hemorrhage
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Postpartum hemorrhage. The client being 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated indicates she is in active labor, which increases the risk of postpartum hemorrhage due to the rapid dilation of the cervix. As the cervix dilates, the blood vessels in the area are more prone to bleeding post-delivery. Ectopic pregnancy (A) occurs when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, which is not relevant in this scenario. Hyperemesis gravidarum (B) is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, unrelated to the client's current condition. Incompetent cervix (C) is a condition where the cervix opens prematurely, typically in the second trimester, not during active labor.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. Which of the following types of isolation precautions should the nurse initiate?
- A. Droplet
- B. Contact
- C. Protective environment
- D. Airborne
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Contact precautions. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is typically spread through direct contact with contaminated skin or surfaces. Therefore, the nurse should initiate contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection. This includes wearing gloves and a gown when providing care to the client, as well as ensuring proper hand hygiene.
Choice A (Droplet precautions) is incorrect because MRSA is not transmitted through droplets in the air. Choice C (Protective environment) is incorrect as this type of isolation is used for clients who are immunocompromised to protect them from environmental pathogens. Choice D (Airborne precautions) is incorrect as MRSA is not transmitted through the airborne route.
A nurse is assessing a client who is 6 hr postpartum and has endometritis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Temperature 37.4°C (99.3°F)
- B. WBC count 9,000/mm3
- C. Uterine tenderness
- D. Scant lochia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Uterine tenderness. Endometritis is characterized by inflammation of the inner lining of the uterus, which results in uterine tenderness. This finding is significant in postpartum clients as it indicates an infection in the uterus. A: Temperature within normal range is not a specific indicator of endometritis. B: WBC count within normal limits is not a specific indicator of endometritis. D: Scant lochia may be present in postpartum clients without endometritis.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an epidural block with an opioid analgesic. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Bilateral crackles
- C. Hypotension
- D. Polyuria
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Hypotension
Rationale: Opioid analgesics can cause vasodilation leading to hypotension due to decreased systemic vascular resistance. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as lightheadedness, dizziness, and decreased blood pressure. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent complications like decreased perfusion to vital organs.
Summary:
A: Hyperglycemia - Opioid analgesics do not typically cause hyperglycemia.
B: Bilateral crackles - This finding is more indicative of fluid overload or heart failure, not a direct effect of opioid analgesics.
D: Polyuria - Opioid analgesics do not usually cause polyuria; in fact, they can cause urinary retention as a side effect due to bladder sphincter relaxation.
A nurse manager on the labor and delivery unit is teaching a group of newly licensed nurses about maternal cytomegalovirus. Which of the following information should the nurse manager include in the teaching?
- A. Mothers will receive prophylactic treatment with acyclovir prior to delivery.
- B. Transmission can occur via the saliva and urine of the newborn.
- C. Lesions are visible on the mother’s genitalia.
- D. This infection requires that airborne precautions be initiated for the newborn.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Maternal cytomegalovirus can be transmitted to the newborn through saliva and urine. This is important for healthcare providers to understand as it influences infection control practices in the care of both the mother and the newborn. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Acyclovir is used to treat herpes simplex virus, not cytomegalovirus. C) Lesions are not typically visible on the mother's genitalia with cytomegalovirus. D) Airborne precautions are not required for cytomegalovirus as it is primarily transmitted through bodily fluids.
Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as being consistent with the adolescent's assessment findings? For each finding click to specify if the assessment findings are consistent with trichomoniasis, gonorrhea, or candidiasis. Each finding may support more than one disease process.
- A. Abdominal pain.
- B. Greenish discharge.
- C. Diabetes.
- D. Pain on urination.
- E. Absence of condom.
Correct Answer: B, D
Rationale: The correct answer is B, D . Abdominal pain (A) is not specific to any of the given conditions. Diabetes (C) is not directly related to the assessment findings provided. Absence of condom (E) is not an assessment finding, but a behavior. Trichomoniasis is characterized by greenish discharge, and pain on urination can be a symptom of both gonorrhea and trichomoniasis.