Which of the following is a potential complication of a cesarean delivery?
- A. Hemorrhage
- B. Infection
- C. Uterine rupture
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. A cesarean delivery can lead to hemorrhage due to the incision and removal of the placenta. Infection can occur at the incision site or in the uterus post-surgery. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication where the uterus tears open. Choosing D is correct as all these complications can potentially arise after a cesarean delivery. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not encompass all possible complications of a cesarean delivery.
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The nurse is reviewing the provider's prescriptions in the adolescent's medical chart.Complete the following sentence by using the list of options. The nurse should first implement ---------------------- and
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- A. Providing education on medications
- B. Administering ceftriaxone
- C. Administering metronidazole and educating on condom use
Correct Answer: A,B
Rationale: Providing education on medications is correct. The nurse should first educate the adolescent regarding medications because clients have the right to know the purpose and potential adverse reactions of all prescribed medications before receiving them. An understanding of the prescribed medications will increase the likelihood that the adolescent will adhere to the prescribed therapy. Scheduling follow-up appointments and administering doxycycline is incorrect. The nurse should schedule the adolescent for a follow-up appointment; however, there is another action that the nurse should take first. The nurse should not administer
doxycycline because it is a prescription for the adolescent to begin once discharged, and the prescription will be provided to the adolescent upon discharge; therefore, there is another action that the nurse should take.Administering ceftriaxone is correct. Ceftriaxone is designated as a NOW prescription, which means it should be given within 90 min of the provider writing the prescription. The nurse should administer ceftriaxone after educating the adolescent about the purpose and potential adverse reactions of the medication. Administering metronidazole and educating on condom use is incorrect. The nurse should not administer metronidazole because it is a prescription for the adolescent to begin once discharged, and the prescription will be provided to the adolescent upon discharge; therefore, there is another action that the nurse should take. The nurse should educate the adolescent regarding condom use; however, there is another action that the nurse should take first.
Which hormone is responsible for triggering milk ejection during breastfeeding?
- A. Progesterone
- B. Estrogen
- C. Prolactin
- D. Oxytocin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Oxytocin. Oxytocin is responsible for triggering milk ejection during breastfeeding by causing the contraction of muscles around the milk-producing cells, facilitating the release of milk. Progesterone and estrogen are involved in preparing the body for pregnancy and maintaining the uterine lining, not milk ejection. Prolactin stimulates milk production but not milk ejection directly. Therefore, the correct choice is oxytocin as it specifically triggers the release of milk during breastfeeding.
A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Contractions lasting 80 seconds.
- B. Early decelerations in the PHR.
- C. Temperature 37.4° C (99 3* F).
- D. PHR baseline 170/min.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A fetal heart rate baseline of 170/min is tachycardic and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate fetal distress.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following tubal ligation. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Premenstrual tension will no longer be present.
- B. My monthly menstrual period will be shorter.
- C. Hormone replacements will be needed following this procedure.
- D. Ovulation will remain the same.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ovulation will remain the same. This is correct because tubal ligation does not affect ovulation; it only prevents the released egg from traveling through the fallopian tube to the uterus. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Premenstrual tension can still occur. B: Menstrual period length is not affected by tubal ligation. C: Hormone replacements are not typically needed after tubal ligation unless there are other medical reasons.
What is the role of the fallopian tubes in fertilization?
- A. Production of ova
- B. Production of sperm
- C. Transport of ova to the uterus
- D. Transport of sperm to the uterus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Transport of ova to the uterus. The fallopian tubes are responsible for capturing the released egg after ovulation and providing a site for fertilization to occur. They transport the egg from the ovary to the uterus for potential implantation. This process is essential for successful fertilization and pregnancy. Choices A and B are incorrect as the fallopian tubes do not produce ova or sperm. Choice D is incorrect as the fallopian tubes do not transport sperm to the uterus.