A client with peripheral artery disease reports leg cramps while walking. What intervention should the nurse recommend?
- A. Encourage the client to rest immediately when cramping occurs.
- B. Recommend that the client increase their intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. Advise the client to take a short break, then continue walking.
- D. Recommend that the client avoid walking altogether to prevent cramps.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For clients with peripheral artery disease, advising the client to take a short break when leg cramps occur and then continue walking is the appropriate intervention. This approach, known as interval walking, helps manage pain from intermittent claudication and improves circulation over time. Choice A is incorrect because immediate rest may not be necessary, and encouraging the client to resume walking after a short break is more beneficial. Choice B is incorrect since increasing potassium-rich foods may not directly address the underlying issue of peripheral artery disease causing cramps. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding walking altogether can lead to further deconditioning and worsen symptoms over time.
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What does the nurse's signature on the client's surgical consent form signify?
- A. The client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done
- B. The client is competent to sign the consent without impairment of judgment
- C. The client understands the risks and benefits associated with the procedure
- D. The client has signed the form freely and voluntarily
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's signature on a surgical consent form signifies that the client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done. This is the correct answer because the nurse's signature does not imply the client's competence, understanding of risks and benefits, or that the client signed the form freely and voluntarily. The nurse's role is to verify that the client has made an informed decision and is providing consent for the procedure.
A client with lupus erythematosus is prescribed prednisone. What teaching should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset.
- B. Avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection.
- C. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
- D. Take extra calcium supplements to prevent osteoporosis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct teaching for a client with lupus erythematosus prescribed prednisone is to avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection. Prednisone suppresses the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Taking the medication with food may help reduce stomach upset but is not the priority teaching. Taking prednisone in the morning may help reduce insomnia, but infection prevention is more critical. While prednisone can lead to osteoporosis, advising extra calcium supplements is not the most immediate concern when starting the medication.
A client with Alzheimer's disease is becoming increasingly confused. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Reorient the client to time and place.
- B. Monitor the client's vital signs.
- C. Provide the client with calming activities to reduce confusion.
- D. Consult with the healthcare provider about adjusting the client's medication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client with Alzheimer's disease is becoming increasingly confused is to monitor the client's vital signs (Choice B). Increased confusion in Alzheimer's disease patients may indicate underlying issues like infection, dehydration, or medication side effects. Monitoring vital signs is crucial in identifying any potential causes of the confusion. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority in this situation. Reorienting the client to time and place (Choice A) can be helpful but is not the first priority. Providing calming activities (Choice C) and consulting with the healthcare provider about medication adjustments (Choice D) may be necessary but should come after assessing the client's vital signs to rule out immediate physical causes of confusion.
The nurse has given discharge instructions to parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin). Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective?
- A. We will call the health care provider if the child develops acne.
- B. Our child should brush and floss carefully after every meal.
- C. We will skip the next dose if vomiting or fever occur.
- D. When our child is seizure-free for 6 months, we can stop the medication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, so good oral hygiene is important to prevent complications.
A client presents to the emergency department with a severe exacerbation of asthma. The nurse notes that the client is using accessory muscles to breathe and has an oxygen saturation of 86%. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
- B. Obtain a peak flow reading
- C. Administer a bronchodilator
- D. Administer oxygen therapy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The first priority in an acute asthma exacerbation is to administer oxygen to improve the client's oxygen saturation. In this scenario, the client has a low oxygen saturation level of 86%, indicating hypoxemia, which can be life-threatening. Administering oxygen therapy will help improve oxygenation and support vital organ function. Once the oxygen levels are stabilized, further interventions such as bronchodilators can be implemented. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position may also be beneficial, but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence in this critical situation. Obtaining a peak flow reading is important for asthma management but is not the first intervention needed in a client with severe hypoxemia.