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A nurse is assessing a client's cranial nerve VII. Which of the following responses should the nurse expect?
- A. The client turns their head against resistance.
- B. The client's tongue is in a midline position.
- C. The client's pupils constrict in response to light.
- D. The client has a symmetrical smile.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: The client has a symmetrical smile. Cranial nerve VII, the facial nerve, controls facial expression including smiling. When assessing this nerve, the nurse would expect the client to have a symmetrical smile indicating intact function. This is because cranial nerve VII innervates the muscles of facial expression. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not specific to cranial nerve VII assessment. The turning of the head against resistance (A) would be more related to cranial nerve XI, the accessory nerve. The tongue position (B) is controlled by cranial nerve XII, the hypoglossal nerve. Pupillary constriction in response to light (C) is regulated by cranial nerve II, the optic nerve.
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A staff nurse is teaching a newly hired nurse how to complete an informed consent document for a client. The staff nurse should include that the nurse's signature on the form confirms which of the following requirements? (Select all that apply.)
- A. The client speaks the same language as the nurse.
- B. The client has legal authority to do so.
- C. The client does not have a mental health condition.
- D. The client signed in the nurse's presence.
- E. The client was not coerced.
Correct Answer: B,D,E
Rationale: The correct answers are B, D, and E. B is essential as the client must have legal authority to give informed consent. D is crucial as the client's signature in the nurse's presence ensures authenticity. E is important to confirm that the client was not coerced. Choice A is incorrect as language proficiency does not determine consent validity. Choice C is incorrect as having a mental health condition does not automatically invalidate consent.
A home health nurse is performing a fall risk assessment for an older adult client. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a potential fall risk in the home?
- A. The client takes an antihypertensive medication.
- B. The client has electrical wires secured to baseboards.
- C. The client wears rubber-sole shoes.
- D. The client's visual acuity is 20/40.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because taking antihypertensive medication can lead to orthostatic hypotension, increasing fall risk. Choice B is incorrect as securing electrical wires actually reduces tripping hazards. Choice C is incorrect as rubber-sole shoes provide better traction. Choice D is incorrect as 20/40 visual acuity alone may not directly contribute to fall risk.
A home health nurse is providing teaching about home safety to an older adult client. Which of the following examples of home safety should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Obtain a raised toilet seat for the bathroom.
- B. Secure loose wires under carpeting.
- C. Use extension cords to prevent overloading circuits.
- D. Cover slippery stairs with an area rug.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obtain a raised toilet seat for the bathroom. This is important for older adults to prevent falls and make it easier for them to use the toilet safely. Raised toilet seats reduce the risk of strain or injury while sitting down or getting up.
Incorrect choices:
B: Securing loose wires under carpeting can still pose a tripping hazard.
C: Using extension cords can lead to electrical hazards and fires.
D: Covering slippery stairs with an area rug can increase the risk of falls due to slipping.
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A client who has acute abdominal pain of 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
- B. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%
- C. A client who has a urinary tract infection and low-grade fever
- D. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hr after a total hip arthroplasty
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should see the client with new onset of dyspnea 24 hr after a total hip arthroplasty first because it could indicate a potential pulmonary embolism, a serious and life-threatening complication. Dyspnea post-surgery can be a sign of decreased oxygenation and impaired gas exchange, requiring prompt assessment and intervention to prevent further complications. Acute abdominal pain (A) can be distressing, but it is less urgent than potential respiratory compromise. Pneumonia with oxygen saturation of 96% (B) is stable and not immediately life-threatening. A urinary tract infection with low-grade fever (C) is also not as urgent as potential respiratory distress.
A nurse is administering multiple types of ophthalmic drugs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Hold the dropper 3 cm (1.2 in) away from the client's eye.
- B. Ask the client to close their eyes tightly after instilling each medication.
- C. Massage the client's eyelids for 2-3 seconds after instillation.
- D. Wait 5 min between the administration of each medication.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Wait 5 min between the administration of each medication. This is important to prevent dilution or interaction between the different ophthalmic medications. Administering multiple medications too close together can reduce the effectiveness of each medication. Holding the dropper at a specific distance (A) is not as critical as allowing time between administrations. Asking the client to close their eyes tightly (B) or massaging the eyelids (C) after instillation can disrupt the medication and should be avoided. Waiting for 5 minutes allows each medication to be properly absorbed before the next one is administered, ensuring optimal therapeutic effects.