Nokea
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking lithium and reports starting a new exercise program. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
- A. Hypocalcemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypomagnesemia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyponatremia. When a client taking lithium starts a new exercise program, they may sweat more, leading to sodium loss. Hyponatremia is characterized by low sodium levels in the blood, which can be exacerbated by the diuretic effect of lithium. This can result in symptoms such as confusion, muscle cramps, weakness, and seizures. Assessing for hyponatremia is crucial to prevent complications.
Incorrect choices:
A: Hypocalcemia - Not directly related to lithium or exercise.
B: Hypokalemia - More commonly associated with diuretic use or excessive potassium loss.
D: Hypomagnesemia - More commonly seen in alcoholism or malnutrition.
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A nurse is receiving a medication prescription by telephone from a provider. The provider states, 'Administer 6 milligrams of morphine IV push every 3 hours as needed for acute pain.' How should the nurse transcribe the prescription in the client's medical record?
- A. Morphine 6 mg IV push every 3 hr PRN acute pain
- B. MSO 6 mg IV push every 3 hr PRN acute pain
- C. MS 6 mg IV push every 3 hr PRN acute pain
- D. Morphine 6.0 mg IV push every 3 hr PRN acute pain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Morphine 6 mg IV push every 3 hr PRN acute pain. This transcription accurately reflects the medication (morphine), dose (6 mg), route (IV push), frequency (every 3 hours), and indication (acute pain). "PRN" indicates as needed. Choice B is incorrect because "MSO" is not morphine. Choice C is incorrect because "MS" is not specific to morphine. Choice D is incorrect because adding a decimal point (6.0 mg) is unnecessary and can lead to dosing errors.
A nurse is preparing to initiate IV therapy for a client. Which of the following sites should the nurse use to place the peripheral IV catheter?
- A. Nondominant dorsal venous arch
- B. Dominant distal dorsal vein
- C. Nondominant forearm basilic vein
- D. Dominant antecubital vein
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nondominant dorsal venous arch. This site is preferred for peripheral IV catheter placement due to the larger vein diameter, ease of access, and reduced risk of complications like nerve damage or infiltration. The nondominant side is chosen to prevent disruption of daily activities. The dorsal venous arch is a superficial vein that is easily visible and palpable, making it suitable for successful cannulation. It also allows for optimal flow rate and minimizes the risk of phlebitis. Choices B, C, and D are not ideal for various reasons such as smaller vein size, increased risk of nerve damage, and difficulty in accessing or securing the catheter.
A nurse is assessing a client who has hypermagnesemia. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Protamine sulfate
- B. Acetylcysteine
- C. Calcium gluconate
- D. Flumazenil
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Calcium gluconate. In hypermagnesemia, there is an excess of magnesium in the blood, leading to muscle weakness, cardiac arrhythmias, and respiratory depression. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for hypermagnesemia as it works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium. By administering calcium gluconate, the nurse can help reverse the symptoms associated with hypermagnesemia and restore normal calcium levels in the body. Protamine sulfate (Choice A) is used to reverse the effects of heparin, acetylcysteine (Choice B) is used as an antidote for acetaminophen overdose, and flumazenil (Choice D) is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines. These medications are not indicated for hypermagnesemia.
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following predisposes this client to developing digoxin toxicity?
- A. Taking a high ceiling diuretic
- B. Having a 10-year history of COPD
- C. Having a prolapsed mitral valve
- D. Taking an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Taking a high ceiling diuretic. High ceiling diuretics, such as furosemide, can lead to hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin competes with potassium for binding sites on the Na+/K+-ATPase pump in the heart, so low potassium levels can lead to an increased concentration of digoxin in the body, predisposing the client to toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly impact digoxin levels or toxicity. A history of COPD (B) or a prolapsed mitral valve (C) do not specifically predispose a client to digoxin toxicity. Taking an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (D) does not interact directly with digoxin.
A nurse is assessing a client's IV infusion site and notes that the site is cool and edematous. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Slow the IV solution rate
- B. Initiate a new IV distal to the initial site
- C. Maintain the extremity below the level of the heart
- D. Apply a warm, moist compress
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action is to apply a warm, moist compress (Choice D). This helps improve circulation and reduce edema by promoting vasodilation and enhancing tissue perfusion. Cooling and edematous IV sites indicate impaired circulation, which can lead to complications like phlebitis. Slowing the IV rate (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue. Initiating a new IV distal to the initial site (Choice B) may not improve circulation in the affected area. Maintaining the extremity below heart level (Choice C) can worsen edema.