Nokea
In terms of fine motor development, what should the infant of 7 months be able to do?
- A. Transfer objects from one hand to the other and bang cubes on a table.
- B. Use thumb and index finger in crude pincer grasp and release an object at will.
- C. Hold a crayon between the fingers and make a mark on paper.
- D. Release cubes into a cup and build a tower of two blocks.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: At 7 months old, infants are typically able to transfer objects from one hand to the other and bang cubes on a table. This demonstrates the development of their fine motor skills related to coordination, dexterity, and object manipulation. They are refining their hand-eye coordination and grasping abilities at this stage, preparing for more complex fine motor tasks in the future. The ability to purposefully transfer objects between hands and make intentional actions, like banging cubes on a table, shows the progression of their fine motor development at this age.
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A patient, age 46, is admitted for observation following an auto accident. He hit the steering wheel and has a chest contusion. Which of the following creates a pericardial friction rub?
- A. Inflamed cardiac tricuspid and mitral valves
- B. Decreased cardiac output c.Increased pulmonary pressures
- C. Rubbing of pericardial and epicardial layers
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A pericardial friction rub is a harsh grating sound caused by the rubbing of the pericardial and epicardial layers of the heart. This rubbing sound can be heard with a stethoscope and is typically indicative of pericarditis, inflammation of the pericardium (the sac surrounding the heart). In the case of the patient with a chest contusion following an auto accident, the trauma could have led to pericardial inflammation and subsequent pericardial friction rub. The other choices do not directly result in the creation of a pericardial friction rub.
A client is admitted to the hospital with a bleeding ulcer and is to receive 4 units of packed cells. Which nursing intervention is of primary importance in the administration of blood?
- A. Checking the flow rate
- B. Monitoring the vital signs
- C. Identifying the client
- D. Maintaining blood temperature
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary nursing intervention in the administration of blood is to correctly identify the client. This is crucial to ensure that the right blood is being administered to the right patient to prevent transfusion reactions and ensure patient safety. Before any blood transfusion, the nurse must verify the patient's identity using at least two unique identifiers, such as name, date of birth, and hospital or medical record number. Patient safety hinges on this critical step, making it the priority when administering blood products. While monitoring vital signs, checking the flow rate, and maintaining blood temperature are all important aspects of blood transfusion management, identifying the client is fundamental and must come first to prevent errors.
What deficits would the nurse expect in a right-handed person experiencing a stroke affecting the left side of the cortex?
- A. Expressive aphasia and paralysis on the right side of the body.
- B. Expressive aphasia and paralysis on the left side of the body. .
- C. Dysarthria and paralysis on the right side of the body.
- D. Mixed aphasia and paralysis on the right side of the body.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a right-handed individual experiencing a stroke that affects the left side of the cortex, the deficits are typically seen on the opposite side of the body due to the way the brain is wired. This phenomenon is known as contralateral organization. In this scenario, the left side of the brain controls the right side of the body.
A patient has allergic rhinitis. In planning care for the patient, the nurse understands that if the patient does not remain compliant with the treatment regimen, the patient is at risk for developing which of the following?
- A. Sinusitis
- B. Lymphadenopathy
- C. Anaphylaxis
- D. Angioedema
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Allergic rhinitis is characterized by inflammation of the nasal passages due to exposure to allergens. If a patient with allergic rhinitis does not remain compliant with the treatment regimen, such as taking antihistamines or using nasal corticosteroids, it can lead to chronic inflammation and congestion of the nasal passages. Over time, this chronic inflammation can predispose the patient to developing complications such as sinusitis, which is the inflammation of the sinuses. Sinusitis can result in symptoms such as facial pain, pressure, nasal congestion, and fever. Therefore, non-compliance with treatment in allergic rhinitis can increase the risk of developing sinusitis as a complication.
A client who is receiving cyclosporine (Sandimmune) must practice good oral hygiene, including regular brushing and flossing of the teeth, to minimize gingival hyperplasia during long-term therapy with certain drugs. Which of the following drug falls into this category?
- A. Procainamide (Pronestyl)
- B. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
- C. Azathioprine (Imuran)
- D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia, or overgrowth of gum tissue, is a common side effect associated with certain medications, particularly anti-seizure medications like phenytoin (Dilantin). This side effect can be minimized through good oral hygiene practices, such as regular brushing and flossing of the teeth. The client must pay extra attention to oral care while taking phenytoin in order to prevent or reduce the severity of gingival hyperplasia. It is important for healthcare providers to educate clients on the importance of oral hygiene with medications associated with this side effect.