Nokea
How does the maternal microbiome influence the health of the fetus during pregnancy?
- A. By increasing fetal weight
- B. By altering immune development
- C. By reducing placental oxygen levels
- D. By enhancing amniotic fluid
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: By altering immune development. The maternal microbiome plays a crucial role in shaping the fetal immune system during pregnancy. Microbes in the mother's body can influence the development of the fetus's immune system through various mechanisms, such as immune cells crossing the placenta. This interaction helps the fetus develop tolerance to maternal antigens.
Choice A (By increasing fetal weight) is incorrect because the maternal microbiome's influence is not primarily related to weight gain. Choice C (By reducing placental oxygen levels) is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the immune system development. Choice D (By enhancing amniotic fluid) is incorrect as the main influence is on the immune system rather than amniotic fluid enhancement.
You may also like to solve these questions
Placental parasitation is associated with
- A. Candidiasis prenatally
- B. Tuberculosis prenatally
- C. Multiple gestation
- D. Malaria prenatally
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Placental parasitation is associated with Malaria prenatally because the Plasmodium parasite can infect the placenta through the bloodstream, leading to severe complications for both the mother and the fetus. This infection can result in low birth weight, preterm birth, and even stillbirth. Candidiasis, Tuberculosis, and Multiple gestation are not directly associated with placental parasitation. Candidiasis is a fungal infection, Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection, and Multiple gestation refers to carrying more than one fetus during pregnancy. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Malaria prenatally, due to the direct impact of Plasmodium parasite on the placenta and its implications on pregnancy outcomes.
According to the American College of Cardiology Foundation and the American Heart Association (ACCFAHA), the recommendation regarding antiplatelet therapy in patients with cardiovascular disease preoperatively is that
- A. Antiplatelet therapy should be held for 10 days preoperatively
- B. Cardiac consultation is required before an operation in patients who are on antiplatelet therapy
- C. Medications should be continued unless concerns about hemostasis are significant
- D. Antiplatelet therapy should be initiated in all high-risk cardiac procedures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct:
1. The ACCF/AHA recommends cardiac consultation before an operation for patients on antiplatelet therapy to assess the risk of bleeding versus thrombotic events.
2. Cardiac consultation helps determine the necessity of continuing, modifying, or stopping antiplatelet therapy.
3. This individualized approach ensures optimal perioperative management based on the patient's cardiovascular risk profile.
4. Choice A is incorrect as stopping antiplatelet therapy for 10 days can increase the risk of thrombotic events.
5. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the decision-making process without considering the patient's specific risks.
6. Choice D is incorrect because initiating antiplatelet therapy in all high-risk cardiac procedures may not be necessary for every patient.
Justin F. is seen in the emergency department with an 8-cm jagged laceration on the dorsal surface of his right forearm. He says he was working with his brother-in-law yesterday morning building a deck on the back of his home. A pile of wooden planks fell on top of him, and he sustained a variety of cuts and superficial injuries. He cleaned the wound with soap and water but didnt want to go to the emergency room because he didnt want to risk being in the waiting room for hours. He wrapped up his arm and went back to work, and then took a normal shower and went to bed last night. This morning the cut on his arm was still flapping open, and he realized he needed sutures. The appropriate management of this patient includes
- A. Proper cleansing and covering of the laceration, along with antibiotic therapy
- B. Local anesthesia, cleansing, and wound exploration for foreign bodies
- C. Local anesthesia, cleansing, and suture repair
- D. Cleansing, covering, antibiotic therapy, and tetanus prophylaxis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Local anesthesia, cleansing, and suture repair.
1. Local anesthesia is needed to numb the area before suturing.
2. Cleansing is necessary to prevent infection and remove debris.
3. Suture repair is required for a jagged laceration to promote proper wound healing and minimize scarring.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: Antibiotic therapy is not indicated for clean, non-infected wounds like this laceration.
B: Wound exploration for foreign bodies is not necessary in this case as the mechanism of injury is known and there is no indication of foreign bodies.
D: Tetanus prophylaxis is important but not directly related to the immediate management of the laceration.
Outline four (4) causes of obstructed labour:
- A. Fetal macrosomia
- B. Malpresentation
- C. Pelvic abnormalities
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Fetal macrosomia, malpresentation, and pelvic abnormalities are all known causes of obstructed labor. Fetal macrosomia refers to a large baby, which can lead to difficulty in passing through the birth canal. Malpresentation occurs when the baby is not positioned optimally for delivery, such as breech or transverse positions. Pelvic abnormalities, such as a contracted pelvis, can impede the baby's passage during labor. Therefore, selecting option D is appropriate as it encompasses all the major causes of obstructed labor. Choices A, B, and C are not individually comprehensive enough to cover all potential causes of obstructed labor.
The main feature in the initial stage of shock is
- A. Cyanosis
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Sweat beads
- D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In the initial stage of shock, the body tries to compensate for decreased perfusion by increasing heart rate to maintain blood flow to vital organs. Cyanosis (A) is a late sign of shock due to inadequate oxygenation. Sweat beads (C) are a non-specific response and not a defining feature of shock. Hypotension (D) typically occurs in the later stages of shock as the body's compensatory mechanisms start to fail. Tachycardia is the earliest and most consistent sign of shock, reflecting the body's attempt to maintain cardiac output.