Nokea
A woman with pelvic inflammatory disease complains of lower abdominal pain. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Have her rate her pain on a 0 to 10 scale
- B. Administer antibiotics as ordered
- C. Administer an analgesic as ordered
- D. Teach the patient about causes and prevention of STDs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action is to administer antibiotics as ordered first because pelvic inflammatory disease is caused by an infection, usually from sexually transmitted organisms. Administering antibiotics promptly is crucial to prevent further complications and treat the underlying infection. This helps to alleviate the source of the pain. Rating pain severity, administering analgesics, and patient education are important but should come after addressing the infection to prevent worsening of the condition.
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Patients with Guillain-Barre Syndrome should be closely monitored. Which of the ff. parameters is most important to be checked regularly for acute complications?
- A. BUN and creatinine
- B. Hgb and Hct
- C. ABG
- D. Serum potassium
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: ABG. Monitoring ABG in Guillain-Barre Syndrome patients is crucial as they are at risk for respiratory complications like respiratory failure due to muscle weakness. ABG provides information on oxygenation, ventilation, and acid-base balance. Regular monitoring helps detect early signs of respiratory distress and guide appropriate interventions.
A: BUN and creatinine are important for assessing renal function, but they do not directly relate to acute complications in Guillain-Barre Syndrome.
B: Hgb and Hct are markers for anemia, which is not a common acute complication in Guillain-Barre Syndrome.
D: Serum potassium levels are important, but ABG monitoring takes precedence in patients with Guillain-Barre Syndrome due to the risk of respiratory issues.
Once admitted to hospital the physician indicates that Mr. Gubatan is a paraplegic. The family asks the nurse what that means. The nurse explains that:
- A. Upper extremities are paralyzed
- B. Both lower and upper extremities are
- C. Lower extremities are paralyzed paralyzed
- D. One side of the body is paralyzed
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C):
1. Paraplegia is a condition where both lower extremities are paralyzed.
2. The prefix "para-" means alongside or beside, indicating that both legs are affected.
3. The nurse would explain to the family that Mr. Gubatan has paralysis in his lower extremities only.
4. This aligns with the medical definition of paraplegia.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A. Upper extremities being paralyzed is not indicative of paraplegia, as paraplegia specifically refers to lower extremity paralysis.
B. Both lower and upper extremities being paralyzed is suggestive of quadriplegia, not paraplegia.
D. One side of the body being paralyzed describes hemiplegia, not paraplegia.
The clinical manifestations of Parkinson’s disease (bradykinesia rigidity and tremors) is directly related to a decreased level of:
- A. Acetylcholine
- B. Serotonin
- C. Dopamine
- D. Phenylalanine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dopamine. Parkinson's disease is primarily caused by a deficiency of dopamine in the brain, leading to the characteristic symptoms of bradykinesia, rigidity, and tremors. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter involved in movement control. Acetylcholine (Choice A) is not directly related to Parkinson's disease, although its imbalance can contribute to other movement disorders. Serotonin (Choice B) and Phenylalanine (Choice D) are not primarily involved in the pathophysiology of Parkinson's disease.
A 78 year old male has been working on his lawn for two days, although the temperature has been above 90 degree F. he has been on thiazide diuretics for hypertension. His lab values are K 3.7 mEq/L, Na 129 mEq/L, Ca 9 mg/dl, and Cl 95 mEq/L. What would be a priority action for this man?
- A. Make sure he drinks 8 glasses of water a day.
- B. Monitor for fatigue, muscle weakness, restlessness, and flushed skin
- C. Look for signs of hyperchloremia
- D. Observe for neurologic changes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor for fatigue, muscle weakness, restlessness, and flushed skin. The patient is at risk for dehydration due to the combination of high temperature, age, and thiazide diuretic use. Thiazide diuretics can lead to electrolyte imbalances, including hypokalemia, which can cause symptoms such as muscle weakness and fatigue. Monitoring for signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances is crucial in this scenario to prevent complications.
A: Making sure he drinks 8 glasses of water a day is not the priority as he is already at risk for dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
C: Hyperchloremia is not a common concern in this scenario based on the given lab values.
D: Neurologic changes may occur in severe cases of electrolyte imbalances but monitoring for physical symptoms such as fatigue and muscle weakness is more relevant at this stage.
The physician orders propranolol (Inderal) for a client's angina. The effect of this drug is to:
- A. Act as a vasoconstrictor
- B. Block beta stimulation in the heart
- C. Act as a vasodilator
- D. Increase the heart rate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Block beta stimulation in the heart. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking beta-1 and beta-2 receptors in the heart. By doing so, it reduces the heart rate, decreases the force of contraction, and lowers blood pressure, which helps in managing angina. Option A is incorrect because propranolol does not act as a vasoconstrictor. Option C is incorrect because propranolol does not act as a vasodilator. Option D is incorrect because propranolol decreases the heart rate rather than increasing it.