Nokea
What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
- A. Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly
- B. Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years
- C. Perform monthly testicular self-examinations, especially after age 50
- D. Have a complete blood count (CBC) and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Digital rectal exam (DRE) and PSA test are recommended by major health organizations for prostate cancer screening in men over 50.
2. DRE helps detect abnormalities in the prostate, while PSA test measures the levels of a protein produced by the prostate gland.
3. Prostate cancer can be asymptomatic in its early stages, so regular screening is crucial for early detection and treatment.
4. Transrectal ultrasound is not a primary screening method for prostate cancer.
5. Testicular self-exams are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer.
6. CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which nursing action is most appropriate for the weak patient with osteoporosis?
- A. Maintain bedrest
- B. Ambulate with assistance
- C. Encourage fluids
- D. Provide a high-protein diet
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ambulate with assistance. Ambulating helps prevent further bone loss and strengthens muscles, important for osteoporosis patients. Bedrest can worsen bone density loss. Encouraging fluids and providing a high-protein diet are important for overall health but do not directly address the weakness associated with osteoporosis.
A client was brought to the school clinic wuth severe, constant, localized abdominal pain. Abdominal muscles are rigid, and rebound tenderness is present. Peritonitis is suspected. The client is hypotensive and tachycardic. The nursing diagnosis most appropriate to the client’s signs/symptoms is:
- A. fluid volume deficit related to depletion of intravascular volume
- B. altered thought process related to toxic effects of elevated ammonia levels
- C. abdominal pain related to increased intestinal peristalsis
- D. altered nutrition: less than body requirements related to malabsorption
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: fluid volume deficit related to depletion of intravascular volume. Peritonitis causes inflammation of the peritoneum, leading to fluid shifting into the peritoneal cavity, causing hypovolemia. Hypotension and tachycardia are signs of decreased intravascular volume. Rigid abdominal muscles and rebound tenderness indicate peritoneal irritation. Choice B is incorrect because elevated ammonia levels are not associated with the client's symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because increased peristalsis does not explain the client's hypotension and tachycardia. Choice D is incorrect because malabsorption does not align with the client's acute presentation of severe abdominal pain and peritonitis.
Which of the ff is the most severe complication among clients with allergies, regardless of type?
- A. Bronchitis
- B. Anaphylactic shock and angioneurotic
- C. Cardiac arrest edema
- D. Asthma and nasal polyps
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, anaphylactic shock and angioedema, as it is the most severe complication of allergies and can be life-threatening. Anaphylactic shock can lead to airway constriction, severe drop in blood pressure, and organ failure. Angioedema can cause swelling of the face, lips, and throat, leading to difficulty breathing. Bronchitis (A) is a respiratory condition that can occur due to allergies but is not typically life-threatening. Cardiac arrest (C) is a serious complication but not directly related to allergies. Asthma and nasal polyps (D) are common allergic conditions but are not as immediately life-threatening as anaphylactic shock.
A client who is HIV positive should have the mouth examined for which oral problem common associated with AIDS?
- A. Halitosis
- B. Creamy white patches
- C. Carious teeth
- D. Swollen lips
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Creamy white patches. These patches are indicative of oral thrush, a common fungal infection seen in individuals with weakened immune systems like those with AIDS. This infection is caused by Candida albicans. It presents as white patches on the tongue, inner cheeks, or roof of the mouth. Halitosis (A) is bad breath, not specific to AIDS. Carious teeth (C) refers to cavities, not directly related to AIDS. Swollen lips (D) can be a symptom of various oral conditions, but not specific to AIDS. In summary, creamy white patches are a characteristic oral problem associated with AIDS due to opportunistic infections like oral thrush.
A nurse is getting ready to discharge a patient who has a problem with physical mobility. What does the nurse need to do before discontinuing the patient’s plan of care?
- A. Determine whether the patient has transportation to get home.
- B. Evaluate whether patient goals and outcomes have been met.
- C. Establish whether the patient has a follow-up appointment scheduled.
- D. Ensure that the patient’s prescriptions have been filled to take home. NursingStoreRN
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because before discontinuing a patient's plan of care related to physical mobility, the nurse needs to evaluate whether the patient goals and outcomes have been met. This step ensures that the patient has achieved the desired level of physical mobility improvement and is ready to safely continue their care at home.
A: Determining whether the patient has transportation to get home is important but not directly related to the patient's physical mobility goals and outcomes.
C: Establishing a follow-up appointment is important but does not directly address the evaluation of the patient's physical mobility improvement.
D: Ensuring that the patient's prescriptions are filled is crucial for medication management but does not specifically evaluate the patient's physical mobility progress.