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A patient presents with intensely pruritic, linear burrows on the web spaces of the hands and wrists. The patient reports a history of close contact with an individual diagnosed with a similar condition. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Scabies
- B. Pediculosis (lice infestation)
- C. Tinea corporis (ringworm)
- D. Contact dermatitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Scabies. This presentation is classic for scabies infestation caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. The intensely pruritic linear burrows are pathognomonic. Close contact with an individual with scabies increases the likelihood of transmission. The other choices, B: Pediculosis, C: Tinea corporis, and D: Contact dermatitis, do not typically present with linear burrows on the hands and wrists. Pediculosis presents with lice infestation, Tinea corporis with circular lesions, and contact dermatitis with erythema and edema.
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Patient Ximena sought referral to an abort ion clinic from the nurse. She reasons out that her pregnancy a burden to her work and daily routines. What should be the BEST RESPONSE of the nurse?
- A. It will cause discrimination from friends and relatives.
- B. Inform her that abortion is morally and legally wrong by virtue of the law .
- C. It will cause infection.
- D. It is against any religion.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A because it addresses the patient's concerns about potential discrimination. This shows empathy and understanding towards the patient's emotional well-being. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the patient's reasons for seeking an abortion. Choice B imposes moral and legal judgments, which can be insensitive. Choice C is not relevant to the patient's stated reason. Choice D imposes religious beliefs, which may not align with the patient's own beliefs.
A patient with a history of asthma is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid. Which adverse effect is associated with long-term use of inhaled corticosteroids?
- A. Oral thrush
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Osteoporosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Osteoporosis. Long-term use of inhaled corticosteroids can lead to decreased bone density and an increased risk of osteoporosis. Corticosteroids can interfere with calcium absorption and bone formation, resulting in bone weakening. Oral thrush (Choice A) is a common side effect of inhaled corticosteroids, but it is not associated with long-term use. Hypertension (Choice B) and hyperglycemia (Choice C) are more commonly seen with systemic corticosteroid use rather than inhaled corticosteroids.
Which of the following interventions is recommended for managing a patient with suspected pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
- A. Empiric antibiotic therapy directed against common pathogens.
- B. Surgical exploration and drainage of pelvic abscesses.
- C. Hormonal therapy to suppress ovarian function.
- D. Symptomatic treatment with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Empiric antibiotic therapy directed against common pathogens. This is recommended for managing PID because it helps treat the infection and prevent complications. Antibiotics target the underlying bacterial infection causing PID. Surgical exploration (B) is not the initial treatment for PID. Hormonal therapy (C) is not indicated for PID management. Symptomatic treatment with NSAIDs (D) can help with pain but does not address the infection itself.
A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache, vomiting, and altered mental status. Imaging reveals a noncontrast-enhancing hemorrhagic lesion within the subarachnoid space. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
- A. Ischemic stroke
- B. Subdural hematoma
- C. Intracerebral hemorrhage
- D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Subarachnoid hemorrhage. This condition presents with sudden-onset severe headache, vomiting, and altered mental status due to bleeding in the subarachnoid space. This type of hemorrhage is typically noncontrast-enhancing on imaging.
A: Ischemic stroke does not typically present with sudden-onset severe headache and vomiting.
B: Subdural hematoma usually presents with a slower onset of symptoms and often develops after head trauma.
C: Intracerebral hemorrhage presents with focal neurological deficits rather than altered mental status and vomiting.
In summary, based on the sudden onset of symptoms, imaging findings, and clinical presentation, subarachnoid hemorrhage is the most likely diagnosis in this case.
In nursing, Nurse Trining explained that the MAIN goal of conducting research is to______.
- A. Justify the role of nurses as health care provider
- B. establish a credit body of evidence to support and improve the delivery of care .
- C. identify research priorities that will justify the Oversupply of nurses
- D. develop a body of knowledge to address non-nursing problems
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: establish a credit body of evidence to support and improve the delivery of care. Conducting research in nursing aims to generate a robust evidence base to inform and enhance the quality of care provided to patients. This evidence helps in identifying best practices, improving patient outcomes, and advancing the nursing profession as a whole. Choice A is incorrect because the main goal of research is not to solely justify the role of nurses, but rather to improve care delivery. Choice C is incorrect as the goal is not to justify an oversupply of nurses, but to address healthcare needs effectively. Choice D is incorrect because the focus of nursing research is on nursing-related issues, not non-nursing problems.