A nurse who is assessing the health-related physical fitness of a client as part of a health assessment should focus on which of the following aspects of the assessment?
- A. agility
- B. speed
- C. body composition
- D. risk factors
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A health assessment should focus on possible risk factors of the client.
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The primary organ for drug elimination is the:
- A. Skin
- B. Lung(s)
- C. Kidney(s)
- D. Liver
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The kidneys are the primary organ for drug elimination, excreting most drugs or their metabolites in urine.
A 55 year-old female asks a nurse the following, 'Which mineral/vitamin is the most important to prevent progression of osteoporosis.' The nurse should state:
- A. Potassium
- B. Magnesium
- C. Calcium
- D. Vitamin B12
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Calcium is the most recognized osteoporosis treatment.
A patient has fallen off a bicycle and fractured the head of the proximal fibula. A cast was placed on the patient's lower extremity. Which of the following is the most probable result of the fall?
- A. Peroneal nerve injury
- B. Tibial nerve injury
- C. Sciatic nerve injury
- D. Femoral nerve injury
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The head of the proximal fibula is in close proximity to the peroneal nerve.
A client has just returned from surgery where a femoral-popliteal bypass was performed. The nurse has assessed the client and is unable to feel a pulse at either the dorsalis pedis or the posterior tibial sites of the left foot. The foot feels warm and the color is pink. What action should the nurse perform next to prevent ischemia?
- A. Notify the physician immediately.
- B. Obtain a Doppler device to check for pulses, and notify the physician if they are still absent.
- C. Wait 30 minutes and recheck the pulses.
- D. Document the finding.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should immediately obtain a Doppler device and recheck the pulses. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial can be difficult to assess and might need to be verified with a Doppler. Because the client just had a surgery in which a complication is arterial insufficiency, the client must be monitored carefully. If the pulses are not found, the nurse should recognize that this is an emergent situation, and the physician must be notified immediately. If the nurse waits 30 minutes before determining if the pulses can be felt, this could compromise the viability of the client's foot due to ischemia. Documenting the findings is important but must be performed after the nurse locates the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses or any necessary interventions are made.
When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?
- A. hysterosalpingography
- B. semen analysis
- C. endometrial biopsy
- D. transvaginal ultrasound
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Because semen analysis is the least invasive of the tests listed and because in 35% of the cases the infertility is related to a male factor, semen analysis should be one of the first diagnostic tests performed. Hysterosalpingography fills the uterus and fallopian tubes with a radiopaque substance that can be seen with an X ray. It demonstrates tubal patency or any distortion of the uterine cavity. Endometrial biopsy provides information about the effects of progesterone after ovulation and the endometrial receptivity. Transvaginal ultrasound is mostly used in the treatment of infertility. For diagnosis it allows the endocrinologist to evaluate the developing follicle, assess oocyte maturity, and diagnose luteal phase defects. All the tests listed in Choices 1, 3, and 4 are more invasive, require greater expertise to evaluate and treat, and are more costly. If the semen analysis is normal, the couple can expect to progress through these tests as well.