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What are some specific health effects of substance misuse in persons AFAB?
- A. increased risk of lung cancer
- B. higher likelihood of developing diabetes
- C. elevated risk of liver damage and cardiovascular complications
- D. reduced risk of mental health disorders
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
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A nurse educator is teaching a class to nursing developing cervical cancer. Which client is at students about the incidence of sexually transmitted highest risk? infections (STIs) and their impact on public health.
- A. Client with a Pap test and an HPV screen positive Which is the most commonly reported STI in the for type 12 United States?
- B. Client who is 40 years old and stopped smoking
- C. Syphilis
- D. Gonorrhea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Human papillomavirus (HPV) is the most commonly reported sexually transmitted infection (STI) in the United States. HPV infection, especially high-risk types such as HPV-16, is strongly associated with cervical cancer. Therefore, a client who is positive for HPV type 16 on an HPV screen is at the highest risk for developing cervical cancer among the given choices. The nurse educator would need to emphasize the importance of regular screening, follow-up, and prevention strategies for this client to reduce the risk of cervical cancer development.
The nurse is caring for a client with preeclampsia. What is the most important assessment?
- A. Daily weight.
- B. Urine protein levels.
- C. Fetal heart rate.
- D. Blood pressure.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Blood pressure monitoring is critical to prevent complications such as eclampsia and placental issues in preeclampsia.
A Nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks9 gestation and who has suspected placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis? Intermitted abdominal pain following the passage Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding Increasing abdominal pain with non-relaxed Painless red vaginal bleeding Dosage 200 A women at 36 weeks of gestation is placed in a supine position for an ultrasound. She begins to complain about feeling dizzy and nauseated. Her skin feels damp and cool. what would be the nurse9s first action? Obtain vital signs Provide the woman with emesis basin Turn the woman on her side Assess the woman9s respiratory rate and effort The nurse explains to a newly diagnosed pregnant woman at 10 weeks9 gestation that her rubella titer indicates that she is not immune. What is the best response by the nurse? Avoid contact with all children during the pregnancy You should receive the rubella vaccine immediately Obtain a repeat tilter in 3 months You will receive the rubella vaccine during the postpartumperiod The clinic nurse explains to Margaret, a newly diagnosed pregnant woman at 10 weeks' gestation, that her rubella titer indicates that she is not immune. Margaret should be advised to (select all that apply): Select one or more:
- A. Avoid contact with all children
- B. Be retested in 3 months c.Receive the rubella vaccine postpartum
- C. Report signs or symptoms of fever, runny nose, and generalized red rash to the health-care provider C, D Filter and block all substances from reaching the fetus Stops estrogen production Provide nutrition to the fetus Provide antibiotics to the fetus Which of the following is NOT a function of the placenta?
- D. respiratory gas transfer
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The functions of the placenta primarily include nutrient transfer, hormone production, respiratory gas transfer, and waste elimination. The placenta does not have a role in urine formation. Urine formation is a function of the kidneys in the mother, and it is not directly related to the placenta's functions.
The nurse is caring for a client pregnant with twins. Which statement indicates that the client needs additional information?
- A. Because both of my twins are boys, I know that they are identical.
- B. If my twins came from one fertilized egg that split, they are identical.
- C. If I have one boy and one girl, I will know they came from two eggs.
- D. It is rare for both twins to be within the same amniotic sac.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The statement 'Because both of my twins are boys, I know that they are identical' is incorrect because twins can be fraternal and of the same sex. Identical twins result from one fertilized egg splitting, while fraternal twins result from two separate fertilized eggs.
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of birth control pills?
- A. They block sperm from reaching the egg.
- B. They prevent ovulation by suppressing hormone levels.
- C. They increase cervical mucus production to block sperm entry.
- D. They reduce the size of the ovaries and fallopian tubes to prevent pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Birth control pills primarily work by preventing ovulation, thereby inhibiting the release of eggs for fertilization. Choice A is incorrect because birth control pills do not directly block sperm; they prevent ovulation. Choice C is partially correct but is not the main mechanism, as the primary function is to prevent ovulation. Choice D is incorrect because birth control pills do not alter the size of reproductive organs.