A client has been taking a prescribed calcium channel blocker therapy for approximately 2 months. The home care nurse monitoring the effects of therapy should determine that drug tolerance has developed if which is noted in the client?
- A. Decrease in weight
- B. Increased joint pain
- C. Output greater than intake
- D. Gradual rise in blood pressure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Drug tolerance can develop in a client taking an antihypertensive such as a calcium channel blocker, which is evident by rising blood pressure levels. The primary health care provider should be notified, who may then increase the medication dosage, change medication, or add a diuretic to the medication regimen. The client is also at risk of developing fluid retention, which would be manifested as dependent edema, intake greater than output, and an increase in weight. Joint pain is not associated with this form of tolerance.
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The nurse is caring for a client who sustained a spinal cord injury that has resulted in spinal shock. Which assessment will provide relevant information about recovery from spinal shock?
- A. Reflexes
- B. Pulse rate
- C. Temperature
- D. Blood pressure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Areflexia characterizes spinal shock; therefore, reflexes would provide the best information about recovery. Vital sign changes (options 2, 3, and 4) are not consistently affected by spinal shock. Because vital signs are affected by many factors, they do not give reliable information about spinal shock recovery.
A client diagnosed with myasthenia gravis is experiencing prolonged periods of weakness, and the primary health care provider prescribes an edrophonium test, also known as a Tensilon test. A test dose is administered and the client becomes weaker. How should the nurse interpret these results?
- A. Myasthenic crisis is present.
- B. Cholinergic crisis is present.
- C. This result is a normal finding.
- D. This result is a positive finding.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An edrophonium test may be performed to determine whether increasing weakness in a client with previously diagnosed myasthenic is a result of cholinergic crisis (overmedication) with anticholinesterase medications or myasthenic crisis (undermedication). Worsening of the symptoms after the test dose of medication is administered indicates a cholinergic crisis.
The nurse has a prescription to ambulate a client with a nephrostomy tube four times a day. The nurse determines that the safest way to ambulate the client while maintaining the integrity of the nephrostomy tube is to implement which intervention?
- A. Change the drainage bag to a leg collection bag.
- B. Tie the drainage bag to the client's waist while ambulating.
- C. Use a walker to hang the drainage bag from while ambulating.
- D. Tell the client to hold the drainage bag higher than the level of the bladder.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The safest approach to protect the integrity and safety of the nephrostomy tube with a mobile client is to attach the tube to a leg collection bag. This allows for greater freedom of movement, while preventing accidental disconnection or dislodgment. The drainage bag is kept below the level of the bladder. Option 3 presents the risk of tension or pulling on the nephrostomy tube by the client during ambulation.
As the nurse begins to administer scheduled doses of furosemide and nifedipine, the client asks for a PRN dose of aluminum hydroxide. Which action by the nurse would be best ensure the effectiveness of all the medications?
- A. Assess the client's immediate need for the antacid.
- B. Administer all three medications at the same time.
- C. Administer the nifedipine and aluminum hydroxide, then the furosemide 1 hour later.
- D. Administer the furosemide and aluminum hydroxide, then the nifedipine 1 hour later.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Antacids such as aluminum hydroxide often interfere with the absorption of other medications. For this reason, antacids should be separated from other medications by at least 1 hour. Because of the diuretic action of the furosemide and the antihypertensive action of the nifedipine, it is important to administer them on time if the client can tolerate waiting for the aluminum hydroxide. The nurse should assess the client to determine the need for the antacid.
To assure the desired results, how should the nurse instruct the client prescribed oral bisacodyl to take the medication?
- A. At bedtime
- B. With a large meal
- C. With a glass of milk
- D. On an empty stomach
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that works by stimulating peristalsis in the colon. To ensure its effectiveness, it should be taken at bedtime to produce a bowel movement in the morning, typically 6 to 12 hours after administration. Taking it with a large meal or milk may reduce its effectiveness due to delayed gastric emptying or interaction with food. Taking it on an empty stomach may cause stomach irritation and is not necessary for its action.