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A patient asks about the purpose of egg retrieval in IVF. What should the nurse explain?
- A. Egg retrieval removes immature eggs for storage.
- B. It collects mature eggs from the ovaries for fertilization in the lab.
- C. Egg retrieval monitors ovarian reserve.
- D. It is performed after implantation to confirm pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It collects mature eggs from the ovaries for fertilization in the lab.
Rationale:
1. Egg retrieval in IVF involves retrieving mature eggs from the woman's ovaries to be fertilized with sperm in a laboratory setting.
2. These fertilized eggs (embryos) are then transferred back into the uterus for potential implantation.
3. This process is crucial for successful IVF as it allows for controlled fertilization outside the body.
Summary of other choices:
A: Incorrect. Egg retrieval is not for storing immature eggs but for obtaining mature eggs for immediate fertilization.
C: Incorrect. Egg retrieval is not for monitoring ovarian reserve; this is typically done through other tests.
D: Incorrect. Egg retrieval occurs before implantation to collect eggs for fertilization, not after implantation.
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The nurse educator is conducting a class for student nurses on X-linked recessive disorders. Which responses from a student nurse indicate that further education is needed?
- A. The male can't be a carrier if he doesn't have an X-linked disorder.
- B. If the male doesn't have an X-linked disorder, then his children won't either.
- C. If the female is a carrier, her daughter could be one too.
- D. If the female is a carrier, her sons may have an X-linked recessive disorder.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it is incorrect to assume that if a male doesn't have an X-linked disorder, then his children won't either. This statement overlooks the fact that the male could carry the recessive gene and pass it on to his daughters, who could then become carriers. This demonstrates a lack of understanding of how X-linked recessive disorders are inherited.
A: This statement is correct as males cannot be carriers of X-linked recessive disorders.
C: This statement is correct as females who are carriers have a 50% chance of passing on the recessive gene to their daughters.
D: This statement is correct as sons of carrier females have a 50% chance of inheriting the X-linked recessive disorder.
A client has been notified that because of fallopian tube obstruction, her best option for becoming pregnant is through in vitro fertilization. The client asks the nurse about the procedure. Which of the following responses is correct?
- A. During the stimulation phase of the procedure
- B. the physician will make sure that only one egg reaches maturation.
- C. Preimplantation genetic diagnosis will be performed on your partner's sperm before they are mixed with your eggs.
- D. After ovarian stimulation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Extra embryos can be cryopreserved for future use.
A client is admitted to the labor and birthing suite in early labor. On review of her prenatal history, the nurse determines that the client's pelvic shape as identified in the antepartum notes is the most favorable one for a vaginal birth. Which pelvic shape would the nurse have noted?
- A. platypelloid
- B. gynecoid
- C. android
- D. anthropoid
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The gynecoid pelvic shape is the most favorable for vaginal birth due to its optimal dimensions and orientation for the passage of the fetus. The anthropoid pelvis is also favorable for vaginal birth, but it is not the most favorable shape. The android pelvis and platypelloid pelvis are less favorable for vaginal birth, with the android pelvis having slow descent of the fetal head and the platypelloid pelvis often requiring cesarean birth.
What is the primary purpose of Preimplantation Genetic Testing (PGT) in IVF?
- A. To increase the number of embryos available for transfer.
- B. To identify genetic abnormalities in embryos before implantation.
- C. To enhance uterine receptivity for implantation.
- D. To stimulate egg production during ovarian stimulation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To identify genetic abnormalities in embryos before implantation. PGT is used to screen embryos for genetic disorders before implantation in IVF to prevent the transmission of genetic diseases to the offspring. By identifying abnormalities, only healthy embryos are selected for transfer, increasing the chances of a successful pregnancy. Other choices are incorrect as PGT does not directly impact the number of embryos available (A), uterine receptivity (C), or egg production (D) during IVF.
A patient undergoing fertility treatments asks about the role of luteinizing hormone (LH). What should the nurse explain?
- A. LH stimulates the growth of the uterine lining.
- B. LH triggers ovulation by causing the release of a mature egg from the ovary.
- C. LH suppresses follicle development in the early cycle.
- D. LH is only important during pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because LH triggers ovulation by causing the release of a mature egg from the ovary. LH surge occurs around mid-cycle, stimulating the mature follicle to rupture and release the egg. This is crucial for fertility and conception.
A is incorrect because LH does not stimulate the growth of the uterine lining; that is primarily regulated by estrogen and progesterone.
C is incorrect because LH actually promotes follicle development and maturation.
D is incorrect because LH is important for ovulation and not just during pregnancy.