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A patient asks for advice regarding whether to have children in the future after hearing she is a carrier for an autosomal-recessive disorder. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Encourage the patient to avoid having children as the risk of having a child with a disorder is 50%.
- B. Explain that if the patient proceeds with a pregnancy, her risk of having a child with a disorder is 25% because she is only a carrier.
- C. Encourage the patient to pursue pregnancy, informing her that she can always terminate a pregnancy if the fetus is found to be affected.
- D. Ask the patient to describe her feelings about potentially having an affected infant.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it demonstrates empathy, promotes open communication, and supports patient autonomy. By asking the patient to describe her feelings, the nurse can understand her emotional state, values, and beliefs, which are crucial in decision-making. This approach encourages shared decision-making and allows the nurse to provide individualized support.
Choice A is incorrect because it is overly deterministic and does not consider individual circumstances. Choice B is incorrect as it simplifies the genetic risk calculation and overlooks the emotional aspect of decision-making. Choice C is incorrect as it may not respect the patient's autonomy and fails to address the emotional and ethical complexities involved in such a decision.
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A nurse is discussing lifestyle changes to optimize fertility. Which recommendation is accurate?
- A. Avoid moderate exercise to conserve energy for conception.
- B. Quit smoking to improve reproductive health.
- C. Eliminate all carbohydrates from the diet.
- D. Increase caffeine intake to boost energy levels.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
- Smoking is known to have negative effects on reproductive health, reducing fertility in both men and women.
- Quitting smoking can improve reproductive outcomes and increase chances of conception.
- Smoking can harm egg and sperm quality, leading to infertility issues.
- Other choices are incorrect as moderate exercise, carbohydrates, and increased caffeine intake do not directly impact fertility.
A nurse is instructing a client on taking her basal body temperature. The nurse understands that this test is used to determine which of the following?
- A. If the client's cervical mucus contains enough estrogen to support sperm motility.
- B. If the client's temperature rises 1 to 5 days after the midcycle.
- C. If surgical correction of uterine pathology is needed.
- D. If the client is experiencing blockage of the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because basal body temperature rises 1 to 5 days after ovulation, indicating that ovulation has occurred. This is important for tracking fertility and planning conception.
A is incorrect because basal body temperature is not used to determine estrogen levels in cervical mucus.
C is incorrect because basal body temperature is not used to diagnose uterine pathology.
D is incorrect because basal body temperature does not assess blockages in the uterine cavity or fallopian tubes.
What is the purpose of using a GnRH antagonist in fertility treatments?
- A. To trigger ovulation directly.
- B. To prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian stimulation.
- C. To stimulate the growth of the uterine lining.
- D. To improve egg quality in natural cycles.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The purpose of using a GnRH antagonist in fertility treatments is to prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian stimulation. GnRH antagonists work by blocking the release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which can trigger premature ovulation. This allows for better control of the timing of ovulation in assisted reproductive techniques.
Choice A is incorrect because GnRH antagonists do not trigger ovulation directly; they prevent it. Choice C is incorrect because stimulating the growth of the uterine lining is typically achieved through other medications like estrogen. Choice D is incorrect because GnRH antagonists do not directly improve egg quality; they primarily target ovulation timing.
A nurse is providing care to a pregnant woman in labor. The woman is in the first stage of labor. When describing this stage to the client, which event would the nurse identify as the major change occurring during this stage?
- A. regular contractions
- B. cervical dilation
- C. fetal movement through the birth canal
- D. placental separation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary change during the first stage of labor is cervical dilation. Contractions occur during both the first and second stages, fetal movement through the birth canal is a major change in the second stage, and placental separation occurs in the third stage.
A patient undergoing IVF asks about the role of gonadotropins. What should the nurse explain?
- A. Gonadotropins suppress ovulation to control the cycle.
- B. They stimulate the ovaries to produce multiple eggs for retrieval.
- C. They are only used during natural conception cycles.
- D. Gonadotropins replace progesterone in early pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because gonadotropins stimulate the ovaries to produce multiple eggs for retrieval during IVF. This is crucial to increase the chances of successful fertilization. Choice A is incorrect as gonadotropins actually stimulate ovulation. Choice C is incorrect as gonadotropins are specifically used in assisted reproductive technologies like IVF. Choice D is incorrect as gonadotropins do not replace progesterone but rather help in follicular development.