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A patient at 13 weeks gestation asks the nurse how her baby is nourished during pregnancy. Which information does the nurse use to explain the process to the mother?
- A. Fetal waste products and CO2 pass through the placenta to the mother.
- B. The placenta is a special organ developed to create nutrients and oxygen.
- C. The mother’s blood and fetus’s blood mix for an exchange of nutrients.
- D. Glucose, amino acids, and oxygen pass through the placenta from mother to baby.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice D being correct:
1. Glucose, amino acids, and oxygen are essential nutrients for fetal growth.
2. These nutrients pass through the placenta from the mother's blood to the baby's blood.
3. This exchange occurs via diffusion and active transport processes.
4. The placenta acts as a barrier, filtering out harmful substances like waste products and CO2.
5. This process ensures the baby receives necessary nutrients for development.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Fetal waste products and CO2 pass from the baby to the mother, not the other way around.
B: The placenta facilitates nutrient and oxygen exchange but does not create them.
C: The mother's and baby's blood do not mix; exchange of nutrients occurs through the placental barrier.
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The nurse is providing education to a pregnant person regarding the nausea and vomiting of pregnancy. Identify the relief measures the nurse would discuss. Select all that apply.
- A. avoid dairy products
- B. avoid strong odors
- C. drink fluids between meals
- D. drink sweet fluids
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: avoid dairy products. This is because dairy products can exacerbate nausea in some pregnant individuals due to their high fat content. Avoiding dairy products can help reduce nausea symptoms.
Rationale:
1. Avoiding dairy products: High fat content in dairy products can trigger nausea in some pregnant individuals.
2. Avoid strong odors: While strong odors can trigger nausea, it is not a specific relief measure for nausea and vomiting of pregnancy.
3. Drink fluids between meals: Staying hydrated is important, but drinking fluids between meals is not a specific relief measure for nausea and vomiting of pregnancy.
4. Drink sweet fluids: While some pregnant individuals find relief from nausea by consuming sweet fluids, it is not a universal recommendation and may not work for everyone.
A 37-year-old patient is being seen for her first OB appointment after having a positive pregnancy test at home. She thinks she is about 6 weeks pregnant. She and her husband have been trying to conceive for 7 years, and she has a history of three spontaneous abortions. What antepartum testing do you anticipate the provider ordering at today’s visit?
- A. a vaginal ultrasound to confirm gestation age, due date, and pregnancy viability
- B. maternal assay blood tests to screen for genetic and chromosomal disorders
- C. a nuchal translucency ultrasound
- D. an integrated screen blood test
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: a vaginal ultrasound to confirm gestation age, due date, and pregnancy viability. At the first OB appointment, confirming gestational age and viability is crucial, especially for a patient with a history of spontaneous abortions. This ultrasound will help determine the accurate due date and assess the viability of the pregnancy. Maternal assay blood tests for genetic and chromosomal disorders (choice B) are usually done later in the pregnancy, around 10-13 weeks. Nuchal translucency ultrasound (choice C) and integrated screen blood test (choice D) are typically done between 11-14 weeks and are not usually ordered at the first OB appointment.
Conjoined twins are formed at which point of gestation?
- A. Immediately after fertilization
- B. At the time of implantation
- C. At about 13 to 15 days after conception
- D. In the blastocyst stage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Conjoined twins are formed at about 13 to 15 days after conception when the embryonic disc undergoes incomplete splitting. At this stage, the cells have already differentiated into different layers, making separation challenging. Immediately after fertilization (choice A) is too early for conjoined twins to form. At the time of implantation (choice B) is when the blastocyst implants into the uterine wall, but conjoined twins are not formed at this point. In the blastocyst stage (choice D), the cells are still in the process of organizing and have not yet differentiated into distinct layers. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer as it aligns with the timing of conjoined twin formation during embryonic development.
The fetal heartbeat should be visible on ultrasound by the:
- A. Fourth week following the last menstrual period.
- B. Sixth week following the last menstrual period.
- C. Ninth week following the last menstrual period.
- D. Twelfth week following the last menstrual period.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The fetal heartbeat is typically visible on ultrasound by the sixth week of gestation.
A female patient with a history of infertility is scheduled to have a hysterosalpingogram. Which findings can be detected with this procedure? Select all that apply.
- A. Tubal occlusions
- B. Uterine fibroids
- C. Cervical irritation
- D. Bicornate uterus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tubal occlusions. Hysterosalpingogram is a diagnostic imaging procedure used to evaluate the uterus and fallopian tubes. It can detect tubal occlusions by visualizing the flow of contrast dye through the fallopian tubes. Choice B, uterine fibroids, is incorrect as hysterosalpingogram does not specifically assess uterine fibroids. Choice C, cervical irritation, is also incorrect as this procedure focuses on the uterus and fallopian tubes, not the cervix. Choice D, bicornuate uterus, is incorrect as hysterosalpingogram primarily evaluates tubal patency and uterine cavity shape, not specific uterine anomalies like a bicornuate uterus.