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A nurse is caring for a client who is 32 weeks gestation who comes to the emergency department for painful bleeding. Which is the priority nursing assessment?
- A. Monitor for contractions
- B. Assess pain level
- C. Assess for hemorrhage
- D. Provide emotional support
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assess for hemorrhage. This is the priority assessment as the client is experiencing painful bleeding, indicating a potential hemorrhage which can be life-threatening. Assessing for hemorrhage will help identify the severity of the situation and guide immediate interventions. Monitoring for contractions (choice A) is important but assessing for hemorrhage takes precedence. Assessing pain level (choice B) is important but addressing the potential hemorrhage is more critical. Providing emotional support (choice D) is important but should come after addressing the urgent medical need of assessing for hemorrhage.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is G1P0 and 36 weeks gestation who has been diagnosed with severe pre-eclampsia. Her blood pressure is 165/110. The physician has ordered hydralazine. The nurse knows she should do which of the following when administering this medication?
- A. Position the client supine with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees.
- B. Get baseline blood pressure and pulse and monitor frequently during administration.
- C. Administer medication every 5 minutes until blood pressure is stabilized.
- D. Inform the client that this may cause a positive direct Coombs test result.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Getting baseline blood pressure and pulse and monitoring frequently during administration is crucial because hydralazine is a potent antihypertensive medication that can cause significant drops in blood pressure. Monitoring allows for early detection of hypotension or adverse reactions.
A is incorrect because positioning the client supine with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees is not specific to the administration of hydralazine for pre-eclampsia.
C is incorrect because administering medication every 5 minutes until blood pressure is stabilized is not a standard protocol for hydralazine administration; it should be given as per physician's orders with appropriate monitoring.
D is incorrect because informing the client about a positive direct Coombs test result is not relevant to the administration of hydralazine; this is more pertinent to medications that can cause hemolytic anemia.
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a 28-year-old client who received methotrexate for an ectopic pregnancy. Which should the discharge instructions include?
- A. Make sure to take folic acid
- B. Make an appointment to see her provider in 6 weeks
- C. Flush the toilet twice after she urinates for the next 24 hours
- D. Resume all activity in 48 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Methotrexate is a chemotherapy agent that can be harmful to others if not properly eliminated from the body. Instructing the client to flush the toilet twice after urination for the next 24 hours helps to reduce the risk of exposing others to the medication through urine. This precaution is important to prevent potential harm to others.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect:
A: Taking folic acid is generally recommended to reduce side effects of methotrexate but is not directly related to the safety of others.
B: While follow-up appointments are important, the immediate safety concern of methotrexate elimination is more critical.
D: Resuming all activity in 48 hours may not be appropriate depending on the individual's response to methotrexate and their recovery process.
The nurse is caring for a client with severe hyperemesis gravidarum. She is 10 weeks gestation and has a 10% weight loss. The client is being admitted for fluid and electrolyte replacement. The nurse is aware it is important to check which deficiency that puts the client at risk for Wernicke’s encephalopathy?
- A. Folic acid
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Thiamine
- D. Glucose
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thiamine. In severe hyperemesis gravidarum, excessive vomiting can lead to thiamine deficiency, increasing the risk of Wernicke's encephalopathy, a neurological disorder. Thiamine is essential for the brain's energy metabolism. Without adequate thiamine, neurological symptoms such as confusion, memory issues, and ataxia can arise. Folic acid (choice A) is important for neural tube development but not directly related to Wernicke's encephalopathy. Vitamin D (choice B) deficiency can lead to various issues but is not associated with Wernicke's encephalopathy. Glucose (choice D) is a source of energy but does not directly influence thiamine deficiency and Wernicke's encephalopathy.
A nurse is monitoring a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her blood work reveals a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) of 10%. The nurse knows this blood work indicates which of the following?
- A. A normal value indicating that the client is managing blood glucose control well
- B. A low value indicating that the client is not managing blood glucose control very well
- C. A high value indicating that the client is not managing blood glucose control very well
- D. The value does not offer information regarding client management of her disease
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. HbA1c reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months.
2. A value of 10% indicates poor blood glucose control.
3. High HbA1c (like 10%) signifies uncontrolled diabetes.
4. Choice C is correct due to the high HbA1c value.
Summary:
A: Incorrect as 10% is high, not normal.
B: Incorrect, as 10% is high, not low.
D: Incorrect, as HbA1c does offer information regarding diabetes management.
The nurse is caring for a client who is at 24 weeks gestation. Which assessment requires further intervention?
- A. Hemoglobin 11 and hematocrit 33
- B. Blood pressure of 130/80
- C. Patient has slight pedal swelling
- D. Urine dipstick for protein 3+
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a urine dipstick showing protein of 3+ indicates significant proteinuria, a sign of preeclampsia in pregnancy. Preeclampsia can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby, such as eclampsia and fetal growth restriction. The nurse should further assess the client's blood pressure, perform additional tests for preeclampsia, and closely monitor the client's condition.
Choice A: Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are within normal range for pregnancy and do not require immediate intervention.
Choice B: Blood pressure of 130/80 is slightly elevated but not concerning at this gestational age. Close monitoring is recommended.
Choice C: Slight pedal swelling is common in pregnancy due to fluid retention and usually does not indicate a serious issue.