The nurse is caring for a client who is at 24 weeks gestation. Which assessment requires further intervention?
- A. Hemoglobin 11 and hematocrit 33
- B. Blood pressure of 130/80
- C. Patient has slight pedal swelling
- D. Urine dipstick for protein 3+
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a urine dipstick reading of 3+ for protein indicates significant proteinuria, which can be a sign of preeclampsia in pregnancy. Preeclampsia poses serious risks to both the mother and the fetus, requiring immediate medical intervention.
Choice A: Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels within normal range for pregnancy.
Choice B: Blood pressure slightly elevated but not concerning at this gestational age.
Choice C: Slight pedal swelling is common in pregnancy and may not indicate a serious issue at this time.
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The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected hydatidiform mole. Based on the diagnosis, what does the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply.
- A. Dark brown vaginal bleeding
- B. Strong fetal heart tones
- C. Fundal height larger than expected
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease.
2. It results in the abnormal growth of placental tissue instead of a fetus.
3. As there is no fetus, there won't be any fetal heart tones.
4. Therefore, the nurse anticipates absence of fetal heart tones.
Summary:
A: Dark brown vaginal bleeding is not specific to hydatidiform mole.
C: Fundal height larger than expected is not a typical sign of hydatidiform mole.
D: Elevated blood pressure is not directly associated with hydatidiform mole.
The nurse is caring for a client with severe hyperemesis gravidarum. She is 10 weeks gestation and has a 10% weight loss. The client is being admitted for fluid and electrolyte replacement. The nurse is aware it is important to check which deficiency that puts the client at risk for Wernicke’s encephalopathy?
- A. Folic acid
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Thiamine
- D. Glucose
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thiamine. In severe hyperemesis gravidarum, excessive vomiting can lead to thiamine deficiency, increasing the risk of Wernicke's encephalopathy, a neurological disorder. Thiamine is essential for the brain's energy metabolism. Without adequate thiamine, neurological symptoms such as confusion, memory issues, and ataxia can arise. Folic acid (choice A) is important for neural tube development but not directly related to Wernicke's encephalopathy. Vitamin D (choice B) deficiency can lead to various issues but is not associated with Wernicke's encephalopathy. Glucose (choice D) is a source of energy but does not directly influence thiamine deficiency and Wernicke's encephalopathy.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 32 weeks gestation who comes to the emergency department for painful bleeding. Which is the priority nursing assessment?
- A. Monitor for contractions
- B. Assess pain level
- C. Assess for hemorrhage
- D. Provide emotional support
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct priority nursing assessment in this scenario is to assess for hemorrhage (Choice C). This is crucial because painful bleeding in a client at 32 weeks gestation could indicate a potential life-threatening situation such as placental abruption or placenta previa. Assessing for hemorrhage involves checking the amount and type of bleeding, vital signs, and signs of shock. It is essential to identify and address hemorrhage promptly to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
Monitoring for contractions (Choice A) is important but assessing for hemorrhage takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses. Assessing the pain level (Choice B) is secondary to assessing for hemorrhage in this case. Providing emotional support (Choice D) is important but should come after ensuring the client's physical well-being is addressed.
During an assessment of a client at 32 weeks gestation with a history of congenital ventral septal defect, a nurse notes that the client is experiencing a nonproductive cough on minimal exertion. The nurse knows that this assessment finding may indicate which of the following?
- A. Orthopnea
- B. Pulmonary edema
- C. Anemia
- D. Decreased blood volume
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary edema. A nonproductive cough on minimal exertion in a pregnant client with a history of congenital ventral septal defect suggests pulmonary edema. This is due to fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to coughing. Pulmonary edema can occur due to increased blood volume and pressure on the heart during pregnancy, exacerbating the client's pre-existing heart condition. Orthopnea (choice A) is difficulty breathing while lying flat, not specifically related to coughing. Anemia (choice C) may cause fatigue and weakness but is not directly linked to a nonproductive cough. Decreased blood volume (choice D) is unlikely in a pregnant client and would not explain the cough.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving magnesium sulfate for pre-eclampsia. Which assessments will be of the highest priority?
- A. Assessing lung sounds
- B. Assessing blood sugar level
- C. Encouraging fluid intake
- D. Assessing for pitting edema
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessing lung sounds. This is of highest priority because magnesium sulfate can lead to respiratory depression. Assessing lung sounds helps monitor for signs of respiratory distress, such as decreased breath sounds or crackles. Assessing blood sugar level (B) is important but not as urgent as respiratory status. Encouraging fluid intake (C) is important for hydration but not as critical as respiratory assessment. Assessing for pitting edema (D) is relevant for monitoring fluid retention but not as immediate as assessing lung sounds for respiratory compromise.