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A nurse is monitoring a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her blood work reveals a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) of 10%. The nurse knows this blood work indicates which of the following?
- A. A normal value indicating that the client is managing blood glucose control well
- B. A low value indicating that the client is not managing blood glucose control very well
- C. A high value indicating that the client is not managing blood glucose control very well
- D. The value does not offer information regarding client management of her disease
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. HbA1c reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months.
2. A value of 10% indicates poor blood glucose control.
3. High HbA1c (above 6.5-7%) signifies uncontrolled diabetes.
4. Choice C is correct as it aligns with the interpretation of HbA1c.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect as 10% is not a normal HbA1c value.
- Choice B is incorrect as a low value would indicate good control.
- Choice D is incorrect as HbA1c is a key marker for diabetes management.
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A nurse is monitoring a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her blood work reveals a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) of 10%. The nurse knows this blood work indicates which of the following?
- A. A normal value indicating that the client is managing blood glucose control well
- B. A low value indicating that the client is not managing blood glucose control very well
- C. A high value indicating that the client is not managing blood glucose control very well
- D. The value does not offer information regarding client management of her disease
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. HbA1c reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months.
2. A value of 10% indicates poor blood glucose control.
3. High HbA1c (like 10%) signifies uncontrolled diabetes.
4. Choice C is correct due to the high HbA1c value.
Summary:
A: Incorrect as 10% is high, not normal.
B: Incorrect, as 10% is high, not low.
D: Incorrect, as HbA1c does offer information regarding diabetes management.
A 17-year-old client has been admitted to the hospital for hyperemesis gravidarum. Which factor likely caused her condition?
- A. Having high levels of hCG
- B. Having high blood pressure
- C. Being an adolescent
- D. Being underweight
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Being an adolescent. Adolescents are at higher risk for hyperemesis gravidarum due to hormonal changes and inadequate nutritional intake. Adolescents often experience rapid growth and increased nutritional demands, leading to a higher susceptibility to conditions like hyperemesis gravidarum. High levels of hCG (A) are common in pregnancy and can contribute to nausea and vomiting but are not the primary cause of hyperemesis gravidarum. High blood pressure (B) is not directly related to hyperemesis gravidarum. Being underweight (D) may exacerbate the condition but is not the primary factor causing hyperemesis gravidarum in this case.
A nurse has just completed an assessment on a client with mild pre-eclampsia. Which data indicate that her pre-eclampsia is worsening?
- A. Blood pressure of 155/95
- B. Urinary output is greater than 30 mL/hr
- C. Deep tendon reflexes +2
- D. Client complains of blurred vision
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Blood pressure of 155/95) because an elevated blood pressure indicates worsening pre-eclampsia. In pre-eclampsia, high blood pressure is a key indicator of worsening condition, potentially leading to eclampsia or seizures if left untreated. Choices B (Urinary output is greater than 30 mL/hr), C (Deep tendon reflexes +2), and D (Client complains of blurred vision) are not indicative of worsening pre-eclampsia. Increased urinary output, normal deep tendon reflexes, and blurred vision are common symptoms in pre-eclampsia, but they do not necessarily signify worsening of the condition.
A client who is 30 weeks pregnant comes into the labor and delivery unit complaining of having a gush of fluid come from her vagina. Which complication is this client at risk for?
- A. Infection
- B. Fluid volume deficit
- C. Hypotension
- D. Decreased urinary output
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid volume deficit. When a pregnant client experiences a gush of fluid from the vagina at 30 weeks, it could indicate premature rupture of membranes (PROM) or preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM). This increases the risk of amniotic fluid leakage, leading to a decrease in the fluid surrounding the fetus. This can result in a fluid volume deficit for the fetus, potentially leading to complications such as fetal distress or preterm labor. In contrast, choices A, C, and D are less likely in this scenario. Infection (choice A) could be a risk later if the membranes are ruptured for an extended period. Hypotension (choice C) and decreased urinary output (choice D) are not directly related to the gush of fluid and are less likely in this immediate situation.
A nurse has just completed an assessment on a client with mild pre-eclampsia. Which data indicate that her pre-eclampsia is worsening?
- A. Blood pressure of 155/95
- B. Urinary output is greater than 30 mL/hr
- C. Deep tendon reflexes +2
- D. Client complains of blurred vision
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A blood pressure of 155/95 indicates hypertension, a key feature of worsening pre-eclampsia. Hypertension in pre-eclampsia can lead to serious complications like eclampsia. High blood pressure can put the client at risk for seizures, stroke, and organ damage.
Incorrect choices:
B: Urinary output > 30 mL/hr is a positive sign, indicating adequate renal function, which is desirable in pre-eclampsia.
C: Deep tendon reflexes +2 are within normal limits and do not necessarily indicate worsening pre-eclampsia.
D: Blurred vision is a common symptom of pre-eclampsia but not a definitive sign of worsening condition.