Nokea
During an assessment of a client at 32 weeks gestation with a history of congenital ventral septal defect, a nurse notes that the client is experiencing a nonproductive cough on minimal exertion. The nurse knows that this assessment finding may indicate which of the following?
- A. Orthopnea
- B. Pulmonary edema
- C. Anemia
- D. Decreased blood volume
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary edema. A nonproductive cough on minimal exertion in a pregnant client with a history of congenital ventral septal defect may indicate pulmonary edema. This condition occurs due to fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to symptoms like coughing. The increased blood volume and pressure during pregnancy can exacerbate the client's existing heart condition, resulting in pulmonary edema. Orthopnea (choice A) is difficulty breathing when lying flat, not specifically related to coughing. Anemia (choice C) may cause fatigue and weakness but is not typically associated with a nonproductive cough. Decreased blood volume (choice D) would not directly lead to a nonproductive cough on minimal exertion.
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The labor and delivery nurse reviews a client’s prenatal records and notes that the client had a positive GBS culture at 27 weeks gestation. Based on current guidelines, what is the recommended plan?
- A. Send a GBS to the laboratory immediately
- B. Prepare to administer penicillin prophylactically
- C. Determine if a follow-up culture was done at 38 weeks gestation
- D. Determine if the patient received antibiotics for the positive strep
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare to administer penicillin prophylactically. This is recommended by current guidelines for clients with a positive GBS culture at 27 weeks gestation to prevent transmission to the newborn during delivery. Administering penicillin prophylactically during labor significantly reduces the risk of early-onset GBS disease in newborns.
A: Sending a GBS to the laboratory immediately is not necessary as the client's GBS status is already known.
C: Checking for a follow-up culture at 38 weeks gestation is not the recommended plan based on current guidelines.
D: Determining if the patient received antibiotics for the positive strep is not the immediate action needed; prophylactic antibiotics during labor are the standard of care.
Which factor places the client at the highest risk of pre-eclampsia?
- A. White race
- B. Multiparity
- C. Obesity
- D. Infertility
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a significant risk factor for pre-eclampsia due to the increased strain on the cardiovascular system and potential inflammatory effects. It can lead to hypertension and vascular dysfunction, contributing to the development of pre-eclampsia. White race (A) is not a specific risk factor for pre-eclampsia. Multiparity (B) is a risk factor, but obesity has a higher association with pre-eclampsia. Infertility (D) is not a known risk factor for pre-eclampsia. In summary, obesity poses the highest risk due to its direct impact on cardiovascular health and inflammation.
The nurse is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes. Which should the nurse monitor closely because of her diagnosis?
- A. Edema
- B. Blood pressure, pulse, and respiration
- C. Urine for glucose and ketones
- D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urine for glucose and ketones. In gestational diabetes, monitoring urine for glucose and ketones is crucial to assess for hyperglycemia and ketosis, which can indicate poor blood sugar control. This helps in adjusting the treatment plan and preventing complications.
A: Edema is not directly related to gestational diabetes and is more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or kidney disease.
B: Monitoring blood pressure, pulse, and respiration is important in general health assessment but not specific to gestational diabetes.
D: Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are important for monitoring anemia, but not directly related to gestational diabetes management.
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a 28-year-old client who received methotrexate for an ectopic pregnancy. Which should the discharge instructions include?
- A. Make sure to take folic acid
- B. Make an appointment to see her provider in 6 weeks
- C. Flush the toilet twice after she urinates for the next 24 hours
- D. Resume all activity in 48 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Methotrexate is a chemotherapy agent that can be harmful to others if not properly eliminated from the body. Instructing the client to flush the toilet twice after urination for the next 24 hours helps to reduce the risk of exposing others to the medication through urine. This precaution is important to prevent potential harm to others.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect:
A: Taking folic acid is generally recommended to reduce side effects of methotrexate but is not directly related to the safety of others.
B: While follow-up appointments are important, the immediate safety concern of methotrexate elimination is more critical.
D: Resuming all activity in 48 hours may not be appropriate depending on the individual's response to methotrexate and their recovery process.
A nurse has just completed an assessment on a client with mild pre-eclampsia. Which data indicate that her pre-eclampsia is worsening?
- A. Blood pressure of 155/95
- B. Urinary output is greater than 30 mL/hr
- C. Deep tendon reflexes +2
- D. Client complains of blurred vision
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Blood pressure of 155/95) because an elevated blood pressure indicates worsening pre-eclampsia. In pre-eclampsia, high blood pressure is a key indicator of worsening condition, potentially leading to eclampsia or seizures if left untreated. Choices B (Urinary output is greater than 30 mL/hr), C (Deep tendon reflexes +2), and D (Client complains of blurred vision) are not indicative of worsening pre-eclampsia. Increased urinary output, normal deep tendon reflexes, and blurred vision are common symptoms in pre-eclampsia, but they do not necessarily signify worsening of the condition.