Nokea
The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected hydatidiform mole. Based on the diagnosis, what does the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply.
- A. Dark brown vaginal bleeding
- B. Strong fetal heart tones
- C. Fundal height larger than expected
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease.
2. It results in the abnormal growth of placental tissue instead of a fetus.
3. As there is no fetus, there won't be any fetal heart tones.
4. Therefore, the nurse anticipates absence of fetal heart tones.
Summary:
A: Dark brown vaginal bleeding is not specific to hydatidiform mole.
C: Fundal height larger than expected is not a typical sign of hydatidiform mole.
D: Elevated blood pressure is not directly associated with hydatidiform mole.
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The nurse is caring for a woman who is suspected of having chorioamnionitis. Which of the following are risk factors for chorioamnionitis? Select all that apply.
- A. Changing cat litter
- B. Frequent vaginal examination during labor
- C. Gestational diabetes
- D. Preterm premature rupture of the membranes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for correct answer (A): Changing cat litter exposes the woman to Toxoplasma gondii, a parasite associated with chorioamnionitis. It is a known risk factor as the infection can spread to the fetus.
Summary of incorrect choices:
B (Frequent vaginal examination during labor): This does not directly increase the risk of chorioamnionitis.
C (Gestational diabetes): While gestational diabetes can have other complications, it is not a direct risk factor for chorioamnionitis.
D (Preterm premature rupture of the membranes): While this can increase the risk of infection, it is not a specific risk factor for chorioamnionitis.
Which factor places the client at the highest risk of pre-eclampsia?
- A. White race
- B. Multiparity
- C. Obesity
- D. Infertility
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a major risk factor for pre-eclampsia due to the increased strain on the cardiovascular system, leading to hypertension and other complications during pregnancy. Multiparity (B) is associated with a lower risk of pre-eclampsia, as previous pregnancies can provide some level of protection. Infertility (D) is not a known risk factor for pre-eclampsia. White race (A) is not a definitive risk factor for pre-eclampsia, as it can affect individuals of all races.
A client who is 30 weeks pregnant comes into the labor and delivery unit complaining of having a gush of fluid come from her vagina. Which complication is this client at risk for?
- A. Infection
- B. Fluid volume deficit
- C. Hypotension
- D. Decreased urinary output
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid volume deficit. When a pregnant client experiences a gush of fluid from the vagina at 30 weeks, it could indicate premature rupture of membranes (PROM) or preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM). This increases the risk of amniotic fluid leakage, leading to a decrease in the fluid surrounding the fetus. This can result in a fluid volume deficit for the fetus, potentially leading to complications such as fetal distress or preterm labor. In contrast, choices A, C, and D are less likely in this scenario. Infection (choice A) could be a risk later if the membranes are ruptured for an extended period. Hypotension (choice C) and decreased urinary output (choice D) are not directly related to the gush of fluid and are less likely in this immediate situation.
The nurse is caring for a client who is at 24 weeks gestation. Which assessment requires further intervention?
- A. Hemoglobin 11 and hematocrit 33
- B. Blood pressure of 130/80
- C. Patient has slight pedal swelling
- D. Urine dipstick for protein 3+
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a urine dipstick reading of 3+ for protein indicates significant proteinuria, which can be a sign of preeclampsia in pregnancy. Preeclampsia poses serious risks to both the mother and the fetus, requiring immediate medical intervention.
Choice A: Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels within normal range for pregnancy.
Choice B: Blood pressure slightly elevated but not concerning at this gestational age.
Choice C: Slight pedal swelling is common in pregnancy and may not indicate a serious issue at this time.
A nurse has just completed an assessment on a client with mild pre-eclampsia. Which data indicate that her pre-eclampsia is worsening?
- A. Blood pressure of 155/95
- B. Urinary output is greater than 30 mL/hr
- C. Deep tendon reflexes +2
- D. Client complains of blurred vision
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Blood pressure of 155/95) because an elevated blood pressure indicates worsening pre-eclampsia. In pre-eclampsia, high blood pressure is a key indicator of worsening condition, potentially leading to eclampsia or seizures if left untreated. Choices B (Urinary output is greater than 30 mL/hr), C (Deep tendon reflexes +2), and D (Client complains of blurred vision) are not indicative of worsening pre-eclampsia. Increased urinary output, normal deep tendon reflexes, and blurred vision are common symptoms in pre-eclampsia, but they do not necessarily signify worsening of the condition.