Nokea
A 17-year-old client has been admitted to the hospital for hyperemesis gravidarum. Which factor likely caused her condition?
- A. Having high levels of hCG
- B. Having high blood pressure
- C. Being an adolescent
- D. Being underweight
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Being an adolescent. Adolescents are at higher risk for hyperemesis gravidarum due to hormonal changes and inadequate nutritional intake. Adolescents often experience rapid growth and increased nutritional demands, leading to a higher susceptibility to conditions like hyperemesis gravidarum. High levels of hCG (A) are common in pregnancy and can contribute to nausea and vomiting but are not the primary cause of hyperemesis gravidarum. High blood pressure (B) is not directly related to hyperemesis gravidarum. Being underweight (D) may exacerbate the condition but is not the primary factor causing hyperemesis gravidarum in this case.
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The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected hydatidiform mole. Based on the diagnosis, what does the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply.
- A. Dark brown vaginal bleeding
- B. Strong fetal heart tones
- C. Fundal height larger than expected
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease.
2. It results in the abnormal growth of placental tissue instead of a fetus.
3. As there is no fetus, there won't be any fetal heart tones.
4. Therefore, the nurse anticipates absence of fetal heart tones.
Summary:
A: Dark brown vaginal bleeding is not specific to hydatidiform mole.
C: Fundal height larger than expected is not a typical sign of hydatidiform mole.
D: Elevated blood pressure is not directly associated with hydatidiform mole.
Which factor places the client at the highest risk of pre-eclampsia?
- A. White race
- B. Multiparity
- C. Obesity
- D. Infertility
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a major risk factor for pre-eclampsia due to the increased strain on the cardiovascular system, leading to hypertension and other complications during pregnancy. Multiparity (B) is associated with a lower risk of pre-eclampsia, as previous pregnancies can provide some level of protection. Infertility (D) is not a known risk factor for pre-eclampsia. White race (A) is not a definitive risk factor for pre-eclampsia, as it can affect individuals of all races.
The nurse is caring for a woman who is suspected of having chorioamnionitis. Which of the following are risk factors for chorioamnionitis? Select all that apply.
- A. Changing cat litter
- B. Frequent vaginal examination during labor
- C. Gestational diabetes
- D. Preterm premature rupture of the membranes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Changing cat litter. Chorioamnionitis is an infection of the amniotic fluid and membranes. Changing cat litter exposes the woman to toxoplasmosis, a risk factor for chorioamnionitis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Vaginal exams during labor can introduce bacteria but are not a direct risk factor. Gestational diabetes is unrelated, and preterm premature rupture of membranes can increase infection risk but is not a direct cause like exposure to toxoplasmosis.
The labor and delivery nurse reviews a client’s prenatal records and notes that the client had a positive GBS culture at 27 weeks gestation. Based on current guidelines, what is the recommended plan?
- A. Send a GBS to the laboratory immediately
- B. Prepare to administer penicillin prophylactically
- C. Determine if a follow-up culture was done at 38 weeks gestation
- D. Determine if the patient received antibiotics for the positive strep
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare to administer penicillin prophylactically. This is the recommended plan because current guidelines suggest administering intrapartum prophylaxis with penicillin for GBS-positive pregnant women to prevent neonatal GBS disease. Choice A is incorrect because sending a GBS to the laboratory immediately is unnecessary since the previous positive culture result is already known. Choice C is incorrect because follow-up cultures are not routinely recommended at 38 weeks gestation. Choice D is incorrect because determining if the patient received antibiotics for the positive strep does not address the need for intrapartum prophylaxis specifically with penicillin.
A 17-year-old client has been admitted to the hospital for hyperemesis gravidarum. Which factor likely caused her condition?
- A. Having high levels of hCG
- B. Having high blood pressure
- C. Being an adolescent
- D. Being underweight
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Being an adolescent. Adolescents are more prone to hyperemesis gravidarum due to several factors such as hormonal changes, increased stress, poor diet, and lack of prenatal care awareness. Being an adolescent increases the risk of complications during pregnancy leading to hyperemesis gravidarum. High levels of hCG (choice A) are a symptom rather than a cause of hyperemesis gravidarum. High blood pressure (choice B) and being underweight (choice D) are not directly linked to the development of hyperemesis gravidarum in adolescents.