The labor and delivery nurse reviews a client’s prenatal records and notes that the client had a positive GBS culture at 27 weeks gestation. Based on current guidelines, what is the recommended plan?
- A. Send a GBS to the laboratory immediately
- B. Prepare to administer penicillin prophylactically
- C. Determine if a follow-up culture was done at 38 weeks gestation
- D. Determine if the patient received antibiotics for the positive strep
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare to administer penicillin prophylactically. This is recommended by current guidelines for clients with a positive GBS culture at 27 weeks gestation to prevent transmission to the newborn during delivery. Administering penicillin prophylactically during labor significantly reduces the risk of early-onset GBS disease in newborns.
A: Sending a GBS to the laboratory immediately is not necessary as the client's GBS status is already known.
C: Checking for a follow-up culture at 38 weeks gestation is not the recommended plan based on current guidelines.
D: Determining if the patient received antibiotics for the positive strep is not the immediate action needed; prophylactic antibiotics during labor are the standard of care.
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Which factor places the client at the highest risk of pre-eclampsia?
- A. White race
- B. Multiparity
- C. Obesity
- D. Infertility
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a major risk factor for pre-eclampsia due to the increased strain on the cardiovascular system, leading to hypertension and other complications during pregnancy. Multiparity (B) is associated with a lower risk of pre-eclampsia, as previous pregnancies can provide some level of protection. Infertility (D) is not a known risk factor for pre-eclampsia. White race (A) is not a definitive risk factor for pre-eclampsia, as it can affect individuals of all races.
The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected hydatidiform mole. Based on the diagnosis, what does the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply.
- A. Dark brown vaginal bleeding
- B. Strong fetal heart tones
- C. Fundal height larger than expected
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Strong fetal heart tones. In a hydatidiform mole, the pregnancy is abnormal and does not involve a fetus. Therefore, the absence of fetal heart tones is expected. Dark brown vaginal bleeding (A) is not specific to a hydatidiform mole. Fundal height larger than expected (C) and elevated blood pressure (D) are not typically associated with a hydatidiform mole.
The nurse is caring for a client who is at 24 weeks gestation. Which assessment requires further intervention?
- A. Hemoglobin 11 and hematocrit 33
- B. Blood pressure of 130/80
- C. Patient has slight pedal swelling
- D. Urine dipstick for protein 3+
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a urine dipstick showing protein of 3+ indicates significant proteinuria, a sign of preeclampsia in pregnancy. Preeclampsia can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby, such as eclampsia and fetal growth restriction. The nurse should further assess the client's blood pressure, perform additional tests for preeclampsia, and closely monitor the client's condition.
Choice A: Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are within normal range for pregnancy and do not require immediate intervention.
Choice B: Blood pressure of 130/80 is slightly elevated but not concerning at this gestational age. Close monitoring is recommended.
Choice C: Slight pedal swelling is common in pregnancy due to fluid retention and usually does not indicate a serious issue.
A nurse has just completed an assessment on a client with mild pre-eclampsia. Which data indicate that her pre-eclampsia is worsening?
- A. Blood pressure of 155/95
- B. Urinary output is greater than 30 mL/hr
- C. Deep tendon reflexes +2
- D. Client complains of blurred vision
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A blood pressure of 155/95 indicates hypertension, a key feature of worsening pre-eclampsia. Hypertension in pre-eclampsia can lead to serious complications like eclampsia. High blood pressure can put the client at risk for seizures, stroke, and organ damage.
Incorrect choices:
B: Urinary output > 30 mL/hr is a positive sign, indicating adequate renal function, which is desirable in pre-eclampsia.
C: Deep tendon reflexes +2 are within normal limits and do not necessarily indicate worsening pre-eclampsia.
D: Blurred vision is a common symptom of pre-eclampsia but not a definitive sign of worsening condition.
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a 28-year-old client who received methotrexate for an ectopic pregnancy. Which should the discharge instructions include?
- A. Make sure to take folic acid
- B. Make an appointment to see her provider in 6 weeks
- C. Flush the toilet twice after she urinates for the next 24 hours
- D. Resume all activity in 48 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flush the toilet twice after she urinates for the next 24 hours. Methotrexate is excreted in urine and can be harmful if it comes into contact with others. Flushing the toilet twice helps to minimize the risk of exposure to others. Choice A is incorrect because although folic acid supplementation may be necessary with methotrexate, it is not the priority in this scenario. Choice B is incorrect as the client should be advised to seek immediate medical attention if any concerning symptoms occur, rather than waiting for 6 weeks. Choice D is incorrect as the client needs to avoid certain activities for a period of time after receiving methotrexate to prevent complications.