Nokea
What is a condition in which there is an excessive amount of amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus?
- A. amniotic fluid embolism
- B. gestational diabetes
- C. oligohydramnios
- D. polyhydramnios
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: polyhydramnios. Polyhydramnios is a condition characterized by an excessive amount of amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus. This can occur due to various reasons such as fetal malformations, multiple gestations, or maternal diabetes. The excess fluid can lead to complications such as preterm labor or fetal malpresentation.
A: Amniotic fluid embolism is a rare and life-threatening condition where amniotic fluid enters the maternal bloodstream, causing an allergic reaction.
B: Gestational diabetes is a condition where high blood sugar levels develop during pregnancy, but it is not directly related to the amount of amniotic fluid.
C: Oligohydramnios is the opposite of polyhydramnios, characterized by a deficiency of amniotic fluid, which can also lead to complications.
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When the mother's membranes rupture during active labor, the fetal heart rate should be observed for the occurrence of which periodic pattern?
- A. Early decelerations
- B. Variable decelerations
- C. Nonperiodic accelerations
- D. Increase in baseline variability
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Variable decelerations. When the mother's membranes rupture during active labor, variable decelerations should be observed in the fetal heart rate. This is because the rupture of membranes can lead to umbilical cord compression, causing variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate pattern. Variable decelerations are characterized by abrupt and visually apparent decreases in heart rate variability.
A: Early decelerations are usually associated with head compression during contractions and are benign.
C: Nonperiodic accelerations are not a typical pattern seen in response to ruptured membranes during labor.
D: An increase in baseline variability is a positive sign and does not specifically indicate the occurrence of variable decelerations related to umbilical cord compression.
Why is continuous electronic fetal monitoring generally used when oxytocin is administered?
- A. Fetal chemoreceptors are stimulated
- B. The mother may become hypotensive
- C. Maternal fluid volume deficit may occur.
- D. Uteroplacental exchange may be compromised
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because oxytocin can cause increased uterine contractions, potentially impacting uteroplacental exchange and reducing oxygen delivery to the fetus. This can lead to fetal distress, making continuous electronic fetal monitoring crucial to detect any signs of distress promptly.
A: Fetal chemoreceptors being stimulated is not directly related to the need for continuous monitoring with oxytocin administration.
B: Maternal hypotension is a potential side effect of oxytocin but does not directly necessitate continuous fetal monitoring.
C: Maternal fluid volume deficit is a concern with oxytocin, but it does not directly link to the need for continuous fetal monitoring.
A primigravida patient asks the nurse to explain the term quickening. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
- A. It is intermittent uterine contractions caused by the increase in hormones, especially estrogen.
- B. It is the absence of menses and is one of the earliest symptoms a woman reports when she is pregnant.
- C. It is when the mother can first feel the movements of the fetus.
- D. It is an increase in vaginal discharge caused by the increase in estrogen.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because quickening refers to the first time a mother feels fetal movements, usually around 18-20 weeks gestation. This marks the beginning of fetal movements that the mother can perceive.
A is incorrect because intermittent uterine contractions are not referred to as quickening.
B is incorrect as it describes amenorrhea, not quickening.
D is incorrect as an increase in vaginal discharge is not the definition of quickening.
The placenta is diagnosed as retained when it is not delivered in what timeframe after the birth of the infant?
- A. 10 minutes
- B. 30 minutes
- C. 1 hour
- D. 2 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (30 minutes) because the placenta should be delivered within 30 minutes after the birth of the infant to prevent excessive bleeding and potential complications. If the placenta is retained beyond 30 minutes, it may lead to postpartum hemorrhage. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the standard timeframe for the delivery of the placenta. A (10 minutes) is too soon for a normal delivery, C (1 hour) is too long and increases the risk of complications, and D (2 hours) is significantly delayed and poses serious health risks.
What is one potential fetal complication of using obstetric forceps?
- A. flexion of the head
- B. abdominal complications
- C. skull fracture
- D. femur fracture
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: skull fracture. When obstetric forceps are used during delivery, there is a risk of excessive pressure on the fetal skull, leading to a potential complication such as a skull fracture. This occurs due to the force exerted by the instrument during the delivery process, which can cause trauma to the baby's delicate skull bones. Flexion of the head (choice A) is a normal part of the birthing process and not a complication of forceps use. Abdominal complications (choice B) and femur fracture (choice D) are not typically associated with obstetric forceps use.