Intrapartum Complication

Intrapartum Complication Related

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Which maternal condition should be considered a contraindication for the application of internal monitoring devices?

  • A. Unruptured membranes
  • B. intravenous (IV) fluid.
  • C. Fetus has known heart defect
  • D. must act quickly to improve placental blood flow and fetal oxygen supply
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unruptured membranes. Internal monitoring devices are inserted through the cervix and into the uterus, which can introduce bacteria and increase the risk of infection if the membranes are not ruptured. This can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby.

Choice B (intravenous fluid) is incorrect because IV fluids are commonly used during labor to maintain hydration and provide necessary nutrients.

Choice C (Fetus has known heart defect) is incorrect because internal monitoring devices are used to assess fetal heart rate and detect any abnormalities, making this condition a reason for monitoring rather than a contraindication.

Choice D (must act quickly to improve placental blood flow and fetal oxygen supply) is incorrect because internal monitoring devices are usually used for continuous monitoring and do not require immediate intervention to be placed.

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What complications can cocaine and methamphetamine use in pregnancy cause?

  • A. seizures
  • B. hypotonic contractions
  • C. prolonged second stage labor
  • D. prolonged first stage labor
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prolonged second stage labor. Cocaine and methamphetamine use in pregnancy can lead to vasoconstriction, decreased blood flow to the uterus, and reduced oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in uterine hyperactivity and fetal distress during labor. This can cause the second stage of labor to be prolonged as the uterus may struggle to effectively contract and progress labor.

Explanation for other choices:
A: Seizures - While cocaine and methamphetamine use can lead to seizures in pregnant individuals, this is not directly related to labor complications.
B: Hypotonic contractions - Cocaine and methamphetamine use are more likely to cause hypertonic contractions (excessive uterine contractions) rather than hypotonic contractions.
D: Prolonged first stage labor - Cocaine and methamphetamine use are more likely to impact the second stage of labor rather than the first stage.

What can amniotomy cause?

  • A. six-hour decrease of labor
  • B. chorioamnionitis
  • C. elevated blood pressure
  • D. second stage labor dystocia
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Amniotomy can cause chorioamnionitis, as the procedure involves breaking the amniotic sac which increases the risk of introducing bacteria into the uterus. This can lead to infection of the fetal membranes, causing chorioamnionitis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as amniotomy does not directly cause a six-hour decrease of labor, elevated blood pressure, or second stage labor dystocia.

When a pattern of variable decelerations occur, the nurse should immediately

  • A. administer O at 8 to 10 L/minut
  • B. place a wedge under the right hip.
  • C. increase the IV fluids to 150 mL/hour.
  • D. position patient in a knee-chest position.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because positioning the patient in a knee-chest position helps to relieve pressure on the vena cava, improving blood flow to the placenta and fetus. This can help alleviate variable decelerations. Choice A is incorrect because administering oxygen at 8 to 10 L/min would not directly address the cause of variable decelerations. Choice B is incorrect as placing a wedge under the right hip is typically used for supine hypotension syndrome. Choice C is incorrect because increasing IV fluids may not directly address the issue of variable decelerations.

A primigravida patient asks the nurse to explain the term quickening. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

  • A. It is intermittent uterine contractions caused by the increase in hormones, especially estrogen.
  • B. It is the absence of menses and is one of the earliest symptoms a woman reports when she is pregnant.
  • C. It is when the mother can first feel the movements of the fetus.
  • D. It is an increase in vaginal discharge caused by the increase in estrogen.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because quickening refers to the first time a mother feels fetal movements, usually around 18-20 weeks gestation. This marks the beginning of fetal movements that the mother can perceive.

A is incorrect because intermittent uterine contractions are not referred to as quickening.
B is incorrect as it describes amenorrhea, not quickening.
D is incorrect as an increase in vaginal discharge is not the definition of quickening.

A new client is seen at the prenatal clinic and says she thinks she is pregnant. The first day of her last menstrual period was April 1, 2014. What is her EDB?

  • A. December 30, 2014
  • B. January 1, 2015
  • C. January 8, 2015
  • D. December 8, 2014
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: December 30, 2014. To calculate the Estimated Date of Birth (EDB), you add 9 months and 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period. In this case, April 1, 2014 + 9 months is January 1, 2015, and then adding 7 days gives December 30, 2014 as the EDB. This calculation takes into account the typical 40-week gestational period of a pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not consider the full 40-week gestational period from the last menstrual period.

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