Nokea
Which of the following are all components of sperm?
- A. acrosome, flagellum, nucleus
- B. codpiece, flagellum, midpiece
- C. nucleus, seminal vesicles, mitochondria
- D. DNA, flagellum, efferent ductules
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: acrosome, flagellum, nucleus. The acrosome contains enzymes for penetrating the egg. The flagellum is the tail for movement. The nucleus contains genetic material. Choice B is incorrect because a codpiece is a protective garment and not a component of sperm. Choice C is incorrect because seminal vesicles and mitochondria are not components of sperm. Choice D is incorrect because efferent ductules are part of the male reproductive system, not a component of sperm.
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Absence of menstruation
- A. Rhinorrhea
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Menorrhagia
- D. Leucorrhea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amenorrhea. Amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstruation, which can be caused by various factors such as hormonal imbalances, stress, pregnancy, or medical conditions. Rhinorrhea (A) is the medical term for a runny nose, unrelated to menstruation. Menorrhagia (C) is excessive menstrual bleeding, the opposite of absence of menstruation. Leucorrhea (D) is a vaginal discharge, not related to the absence of menstruation. Therefore, B is the correct answer as it directly addresses the absence of menstruation.
The patient is unable to tolerate a bimanual pelvic examination due to pain in ovaries and fallopian tubes. Which disorder does the nurse suspect?
- A. Tertiary syphilis
- B. Genital herpes
- C. Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection
- D. Pelvic inflammatory disease
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is characterized by inflammation and infection of the female reproductive organs, including ovaries and fallopian tubes, leading to pain during bimanual pelvic examination. This is due to the inflammatory response in the pelvic area. Tertiary syphilis (A), genital herpes (B), and HPV infection (C) do not typically present with acute pelvic pain during examination. Syphilis affects multiple organ systems, herpes presents with genital lesions, and HPV usually does not cause acute pelvic pain. Therefore, PID is the most likely diagnosis based on the symptoms described.
Which finding from the nurse’s physical assessment of a 42-yr-old male patient should be reported to the health care provider?
- A. One testis hangs lower than the other.
- B. Genital hair distribution is diamond shaped
- C. Clear discharge is present at the penile meatus.
- D. Inguinal lymph nodes are nonpalpable bilaterally.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because palpable inguinal lymph nodes could indicate an underlying infection or malignancy, requiring further evaluation by the healthcare provider. This finding is concerning and needs attention.
A: One testis hanging lower than the other is a normal variation and does not typically require reporting.
B: Genital hair distribution being diamond-shaped is a common pattern and is not an abnormal finding that necessitates reporting.
C: Clear discharge at the penile meatus could be normal or due to benign conditions such as urethral irritation, so it may not require immediate reporting unless other concerning symptoms are present.
During the initial inspection of the female genitalia, the nurse recognizes which finding as normal?
- A. The labia minora are hair-covered and lying within the labia majora.
- B. The cervical os in the multiparous woman has the shape of a small circle.
- C. The vaginal vestibule lies between the labia minora and contains the urinary meatus.
- D. The openings of Skene and Bartholin glands are visible posteriorly.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the vaginal vestibule lies between the labia minora and contains the urinary meatus, which is a normal anatomical finding. The labia minora being hair-covered and lying within the labia majora (A) is not normal. The cervical os in a multiparous woman should have a shape of a transverse slit, not a small circle (B). The openings of Skene and Bartholin glands are not typically visible during the initial inspection of the female genitalia (D).
The reproductive cycle of a human is usually regulated by
- A. gametes
- B. hormones
- C. natural selection
- D. immune responses
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: hormones. Hormones play a crucial role in regulating the human reproductive cycle by controlling the release of gametes and coordinating the processes of ovulation and menstruation. Hormones such as estrogen and progesterone interact with the reproductive organs to maintain the menstrual cycle and facilitate fertility. Natural selection (C) is the mechanism of evolution, not directly related to regulating the reproductive cycle. Immune responses (D) are involved in protecting the body from pathogens, not in regulating the reproductive cycle. Gametes (A) are the reproductive cells, but they are not responsible for regulating the reproductive cycle.