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When a client expresses, 'I don't know how I will go on' while discussing feelings related to a recent loss, the nurse remains silent. What is the most likely reason for the nurse's behavior?
- A. The nurse is indicating disapproval of the statement.
- B. The nurse is showing respect for the client's loss.
- C. Silence is mirroring the client's sadness.
- D. Silence enables the client to contemplate what was expressed.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse's silence allows the client to reflect on and process their emotions after expressing uncertainty about the future. By remaining silent, the nurse gives the client space to explore their feelings and thoughts without interruption. This can help the client gain insight and come to terms with their emotions.
A: The nurse's silence does not indicate disapproval, as it is a common therapeutic technique.
B: While the nurse may be showing respect for the client's loss, the primary reason for the silence is to facilitate the client's reflection.
C: Although silence can sometimes mirror the client's emotions, the main purpose here is to enable contemplation rather than direct mirroring.
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A client from a nursing home is admitted with urinary sepsis and has a single-lumen, peripherally-inserted central catheter (PICC). Four medications are prescribed for 9:00 a.m. and the nurse is running behind schedule. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
- A. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours.
- B. Vancomycin (Vancocin) 1 gm in 250 ml D5W, IV over 90 minutes q12 hours.
- C. Pantoprazole (Protonix) 40 mg PO daily.
- D. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg subq q24 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours. In a patient with urinary sepsis, timely administration of antibiotics is crucial to prevent further complications. Piperacillin/tazobactam is a broad-spectrum antibiotic effective against a wide range of bacteria commonly involved in sepsis. Administering it first ensures prompt initiation of treatment. Other choices (B) Vancomycin, (C) Pantoprazole, and (D) Enoxaparin are important medications but are not as time-sensitive in this scenario. Vancomycin and Enoxaparin have longer administration times, and Pantoprazole is a maintenance medication that is not urgent in the acute management of sepsis.
Which intervention should the nurse implement to enhance the efficacy of the client's asthma medication therapy?
- A. Administer the albuterol inhaler before other inhaled medications.
- B. Provide oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters/minute.
- C. Encourage the client to drink three liters of fluids daily.
- D. Keep the client upright during nebulizer therapy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer the albuterol inhaler before other inhaled medications. Administering albuterol first helps open airways, allowing better absorption of subsequent medications. Option B does not directly enhance medication efficacy. Option C promotes hydration but doesn't affect medication efficacy. Option D does not specifically enhance medication therapy.
What physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?
- A. Soft, spongy fundus.
- B. Saturating two perineal pads per hour.
- C. Pulse rate of 56 BPM.
- D. Unilateral lower leg pain.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pulse rate of 56 BPM. A normal finding for a primigravida client 12 hours postpartum would be a lower pulse rate as the body is recovering from childbirth. A pulse rate of 56 BPM is within the normal range for an adult.
A: Soft, spongy fundus would be a concerning finding as it could indicate uterine atony.
B: Saturating two perineal pads per hour would be excessive bleeding and could indicate postpartum hemorrhage.
D: Unilateral lower leg pain could be a sign of deep vein thrombosis, which is a potential complication postpartum.
Because the census is currently low in the Obstetrics (OB) unit, one of the nurses is sent to work on a medical-surgical unit for the day, or until the OB unit becomes busy. Which client assessment is best for the charge nurse to assign to the OB nurse?
- A. An adult who had a colon resection yesterday and has an IV.
- B. An older adult who has a fever of unknown origin.
- C. A woman who had an acute brain attack (stroke, CVA) 6 hours ago.
- D. A teenager with a femoral fracture who is in traction.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the OB nurse's background in obstetrics makes them most suitable to care for a post-operative patient with an IV. This assignment aligns with the nurse's skill set and ensures safe and competent care. Choices B, C, and D involve medical-surgical conditions that may require specialized knowledge and skills beyond the OB nurse's expertise, potentially compromising patient care. Assigning the OB nurse to care for a post-operative patient with an IV is the most appropriate choice given the circumstances.
The client has received 250 ml of 0.9% normal saline through the IV line in the last hour. The client is now tachypneic and has a pulse rate of 120 beats/minute, with a pulse volume of +4. In addition to reporting the assessment findings to the healthcare provider, what action should the nurse implement?
- A. Discontinue the IV and apply pressure at the site.
- B. Decrease the saline to a keep-open rate.
- C. Increase the rate of the current IV solution.
- D. Change the IV fluid to 0.45% normal saline at the same rate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decrease the saline to a keep-open rate. The client is showing signs of fluid overload, indicated by tachypnea and bounding pulse. By decreasing the saline to a keep-open rate, the nurse can prevent further fluid overload while maintaining IV access. Discontinuing the IV and applying pressure (choice A) is not necessary unless there is a specific issue with the IV site. Increasing the rate of the current IV solution (choice C) would worsen the fluid overload. Changing the IV fluid to 0.45% normal saline (choice D) at the same rate may not effectively address the fluid overload concern.