Nokea
The client with bacterial pneumonia is receiving intravenous antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the treatment is effective?
- A. Increased respiratory rate.
- B. Decreased oxygen saturation.
- C. Clear lung sounds.
- D. Elevated white blood cell count.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clear lung sounds. Clear lung sounds indicate effective treatment as they suggest improved air exchange and resolution of lung congestion caused by pneumonia. Increased respiratory rate (A) and decreased oxygen saturation (B) are signs of respiratory distress and ineffective treatment. Elevated white blood cell count (D) indicates ongoing infection, not effectiveness of treatment. Therefore, clear lung sounds are the best indicator of treatment effectiveness in bacterial pneumonia.
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The healthcare provider is assessing a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which clinical manifestation should the healthcare provider expect to find?
- A. Hyperpigmentation of the skin.
- B. Hypotension.
- C. Moon face and buffalo hump.
- D. Weight loss.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Moon face and buffalo hump. In Cushing's syndrome, excessive cortisol production leads to characteristic symptoms like moon face (round, puffy face) and buffalo hump (fat accumulation at the back of the neck). This is due to redistribution of fat in the body. Hyperpigmentation (choice A) is seen in Addison's disease, not Cushing's. Hypotension (choice B) is unlikely due to the cortisol-induced sodium retention. Weight loss (choice D) is less common in Cushing's due to the metabolic changes causing weight gain.
The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- B. Serosanguineous drainage in the collection chamber.
- C. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
- D. Chest tube secured to the client's chest wall.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the system, which can lead to pneumothorax or compromised lung function. Immediate intervention is required to prevent complications. Serosanguineous drainage in the collection chamber (B) is expected after thoracotomy. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber (C) is normal and indicates proper suction function. Chest tube secured to the client's chest wall (D) is essential for stability and should not require immediate intervention.
A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urine output.
- B. Decreased blood pressure.
- C. Improved hemoglobin levels.
- D. Stable potassium levels.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Improved hemoglobin levels. Epoetin alfa is a medication used to treat anemia in patients with chronic renal failure by stimulating red blood cell production. Improved hemoglobin levels indicate that the medication is effective in addressing the anemia associated with renal failure. Increased urine output (A) is not a direct outcome of epoetin alfa therapy. Decreased blood pressure (B) and stable potassium levels (D) are not specific indicators of the medication's effectiveness in treating anemia.
A client who has just started taking levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet) for Parkinson's disease reports experiencing nausea. What should the nurse recommend to the client?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Consume a low-protein snack with the medication.
- C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
- D. Stop taking the medication and notify your healthcare provider.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Consume a low-protein snack with the medication. This is because levodopa absorption is improved when taken with a low-protein snack, reducing the risk of nausea. Choice A is incorrect as taking the medication on an empty stomach can exacerbate nausea. Choice C is incorrect as increasing dairy intake can interfere with levodopa absorption. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping the medication can worsen Parkinson's symptoms.
A client who has been receiving treatment for depression with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) reports experiencing decreased libido. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Decreased libido is a common side effect of SSRIs and may improve over time.
- B. I will notify your healthcare provider to discuss possible medication changes.
- C. You should take your medication with food to reduce side effects.
- D. Increase your daily exercise to help manage this side effect.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is B: I will notify your healthcare provider to discuss possible medication changes. This is the best choice because decreased libido is a common side effect of SSRIs that can significantly impact the client's quality of life. Consulting the healthcare provider is crucial to explore alternative treatment options or adjustments to improve the client's symptoms. Choices A, C, and D do not address the underlying issue of decreased libido and are unlikely to provide effective solutions. Choice A only acknowledges the side effect without offering a proactive solution. Choice C is unrelated to the sexual side effect and may not address the client's concerns. Choice D suggests a general lifestyle change that may not directly address the medication side effect. Consulting the healthcare provider for medication adjustments is the most appropriate action to address this specific side effect.