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A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which sign of digoxin toxicity should the nurse teach the client to report?
- A. Increased appetite.
- B. Yellow or blurred vision.
- C. Weight gain.
- D. Nasal congestion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Yellow or blurred vision. Digoxin toxicity can lead to visual disturbances, such as yellow or blurred vision, due to its effects on the optic nerve. The nurse should teach the client to report this symptom immediately as it indicates a serious adverse effect. Increased appetite (A), weight gain (C), and nasal congestion (D) are not specific signs of digoxin toxicity and are more commonly associated with other health conditions or side effects of medications. It is crucial for the nurse to emphasize the importance of monitoring and reporting any visual changes to prevent serious complications from digoxin toxicity.
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A client with a history of chronic heart failure is experiencing severe shortness of breath and has pink, frothy sputum. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer morphine sulfate.
- B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
- C. Initiate continuous ECG monitoring.
- D. Prepare the client for intubation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to place the client in a high Fowler's position (Choice B). This position helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation by reducing pressure on the diaphragm and improving ventilation. With severe shortness of breath and pink, frothy sputum, the priority is to optimize respiratory function. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice A) may be indicated later for pain and anxiety but is not the immediate priority. Initiating continuous ECG monitoring (Choice C) is important but not as urgent as addressing the respiratory distress. Preparing the client for intubation (Choice D) should be considered if respiratory distress worsens, but initial interventions should focus on improving oxygenation through positioning.
When assessing a client with suspected meningitis, which finding is indicative of meningeal irritation?
- A. Brudzinski's sign
- B. Positive Babinski reflex
- C. Kernig's sign
- D. Both A and C
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Both A and C. Brudzinski's sign and Kernig's sign are both indicative of meningeal irritation. Brudzinski's sign is when flexion of the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hip and knee. Kernig's sign is when there is resistance or pain with knee extension after hip flexion. These signs suggest inflammation of the meninges, commonly seen in meningitis. Babinski reflex (choice B) is not specific to meningitis and is related to upper motor neuron dysfunction. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it includes the two most relevant signs for meningeal irritation, while the other choices are not directly associated with this condition.
The healthcare provider is caring for a client with Guillain-Barr© syndrome. Which assessment finding requires the healthcare provider's immediate action?
- A. Loss of deep tendon reflexes.
- B. Ascending weakness.
- C. New onset of confusion.
- D. Decreased vital capacity.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased vital capacity. This finding indicates respiratory muscle weakness, which can lead to respiratory failure in Guillain-Barr© syndrome. Immediate action is needed to prevent respiratory compromise. Choice A is a common finding in Guillain-Barr© and does not require immediate action. Choice B is characteristic of Guillain-Barr© and should be monitored but not the most urgent. Choice C could indicate other issues but is not as critical as respiratory compromise.
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which pre-procedure instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Maintain a low-protein diet for 24 hours before the biopsy.
- B. Avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy.
- C. Drink plenty of fluids before the procedure.
- D. Take your routine medications with a full glass of water before the biopsy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy. This is essential to prevent excessive bleeding during and after the procedure. Chronic kidney disease patients are at higher risk of bleeding due to impaired kidney function.
A: Maintaining a low-protein diet is not directly related to the biopsy procedure and is not necessary.
C: Drinking plenty of fluids may be beneficial for renal function but is not a specific pre-procedure instruction for a renal biopsy.
D: Taking routine medications with water is important, but specific instructions regarding anticoagulant medications are more critical in this case.
A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching?
- A. Report any signs of infection, such as sore throat or fever, to your healthcare provider.'
- B. Increase your intake of iodine-rich foods, such as seafood and dairy products.'
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach for better absorption.'
- D. You may experience weight gain and fatigue as side effects of the medication.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Report any signs of infection, such as sore throat or fever, to your healthcare provider." This is important because PTU can cause agranulocytosis, a serious side effect that can lead to severe infections. By reporting signs of infection early, the healthcare provider can monitor the client's blood counts and adjust treatment if necessary.
Choice B is incorrect because increasing intake of iodine-rich foods can worsen hyperthyroidism. Choice C is incorrect because PTU should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because weight gain and fatigue are not common side effects of PTU; in fact, weight loss and hyperactivity are more common.