Nokea
The client with bacterial pneumonia is receiving intravenous antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the treatment is effective?
- A. Increased respiratory rate.
- B. Decreased oxygen saturation.
- C. Clear lung sounds.
- D. Elevated white blood cell count.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clear lung sounds. Clear lung sounds indicate effective treatment as they suggest improved air exchange and resolution of lung congestion caused by pneumonia. Increased respiratory rate (A) and decreased oxygen saturation (B) are signs of respiratory distress and ineffective treatment. Elevated white blood cell count (D) indicates ongoing infection, not effectiveness of treatment. Therefore, clear lung sounds are the best indicator of treatment effectiveness in bacterial pneumonia.
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A client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is receiving teaching on foot care. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Walk barefoot whenever possible to toughen your feet.
- B. Soak your feet in hot water daily to improve circulation.
- C. Trim your toenails straight across to prevent ingrown toenails.
- D. Use a heating pad to keep your feet warm.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Trim your toenails straight across to prevent ingrown toenails.
Rationale:
1. Trimming toenails straight across helps prevent ingrown nails.
2. Ingrown nails can lead to infection, especially risky for diabetics due to poor wound healing.
3. Walking barefoot toughens feet, increasing risk of injury.
4. Soaking in hot water can cause burns or skin damage.
5. Using a heating pad can lead to burns or decreased sensation in feet, increasing injury risk.
Summary:
Option C is correct as it directly addresses a common issue in diabetic foot care - ingrown toenails. Options A, B, and D pose risks of injury or damage to the feet, which is detrimental for diabetic individuals.
A client with severe anemia is being treated with a blood transfusion. Which assessment finding indicates a transfusion reaction?
- A. Elevated blood pressure.
- B. Fever and chills.
- C. Increased urine output.
- D. Bradycardia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever and chills. This indicates a transfusion reaction because it is a common symptom of hemolytic reactions, where the body is reacting to incompatible blood. Elevated blood pressure (A) is not typically a sign of a transfusion reaction. Increased urine output (C) is more likely a sign of fluid overload. Bradycardia (D) is not a common symptom of a transfusion reaction. Fever and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction due to the body's immune response to the blood transfusion.
A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Eat a light breakfast on the day of the procedure.
- B. You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution before the procedure.
- C. Avoid all liquids for 24 hours before the procedure.
- D. You can continue taking your blood thinners until the day of the procedure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because drinking a bowel preparation solution helps clear the colon for better visualization during the colonoscopy. This step is crucial to ensure accuracy of the procedure. Choice A is incorrect as the client should have a clear liquid diet the day before the procedure. Choice C is incorrect as hydration is important, but clear liquids are allowed. Choice D is incorrect because blood thinners may need to be adjusted prior to the procedure to reduce bleeding risk.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing respiratory distress. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
- B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing.
- C. Position the client in a high Fowler's position.
- D. Obtain a stat arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to position the client in a high Fowler's position first. This helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation, making it the priority intervention for a client with respiratory distress. Administering bronchodilators or obtaining an ABG sample can wait until the client's oxygenation is improved. Pursed-lip breathing can be helpful, but positioning is more critical in this situation.
An 85-year-old male resident of an extended care facility reaches for the hand of an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) and tries to kiss her hand several times during his morning care. The UAP reports the incident to the charge nurse. What is the best assessment of the situation?
- A. This behavior can be considered sexual harassment and should be reported to the administration immediately.
- B. The UAP should be reassigned to another group of residents, preferably females only.
- C. The client may be suffering from touch deprivation and needs to know appropriate ways to express his need.
- D. The resident needs to understand the rules regarding unwanted touching of the staff and the consequences.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the behavior exhibited by the resident may stem from touch deprivation rather than being intentional sexual harassment. Here's a step-by-step rationale:
1. Understanding the resident's age and environment (extended care facility) helps in interpreting his behavior.
2. The resident's actions suggest a need for touch, which is common in older adults who may lack physical contact.
3. Educating the resident on appropriate ways to express his need for touch can address the underlying issue.
4. Reassigning the UAP or reporting the incident as sexual harassment (options A and B) may not address the root cause of the behavior and could potentially harm the resident's well-being.
In summary, choice C focuses on addressing the resident's potential touch deprivation in a compassionate and understanding manner, making it the best assessment of the situation.