Nokea
The mental health nurse observes that a female client with delusional disorder carries some of her belongings with her because she believes that others are trying to steal them. Which nursing action will promote trust?
- A. Explain that distrust is related to feeling anxious.
- B. Initiate short, frequent contacts with the client.
- C. Explain that these beliefs are related to her illness.
- D. Offer to keep the belongings at the nurse's desk.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Initiating short, frequent contacts with the client will promote trust by establishing a consistent and supportive presence.
Step 2: This approach allows the nurse to build rapport and demonstrate genuine concern for the client's well-being.
Step 3: Regular interactions can help the client feel understood and supported, leading to a more trusting relationship.
Step 4: By maintaining frequent contact, the nurse can monitor the client's well-being and provide reassurance as needed.
Step 5: This proactive approach fosters trust and a therapeutic alliance, enhancing the client's overall care experience.
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When assessing a client with suspected meningitis, which finding is indicative of meningeal irritation?
- A. Brudzinski's sign
- B. Positive Babinski reflex
- C. Kernig's sign
- D. Both A and C
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Both A and C. Brudzinski's sign and Kernig's sign are both indicative of meningeal irritation. Brudzinski's sign is when flexion of the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hip and knee. Kernig's sign is when there is resistance or pain with knee extension after hip flexion. These signs suggest inflammation of the meninges, commonly seen in meningitis. Babinski reflex (choice B) is not specific to meningitis and is related to upper motor neuron dysfunction. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it includes the two most relevant signs for meningeal irritation, while the other choices are not directly associated with this condition.
A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Eat a light breakfast on the day of the procedure.
- B. You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution before the procedure.
- C. Avoid all liquids for 24 hours before the procedure.
- D. You can continue taking your blood thinners until the day of the procedure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because drinking a bowel preparation solution helps clear the colon for better visualization during the colonoscopy. This step is crucial to ensure accuracy of the procedure. Choice A is incorrect as the client should have a clear liquid diet the day before the procedure. Choice C is incorrect as hydration is important, but clear liquids are allowed. Choice D is incorrect because blood thinners may need to be adjusted prior to the procedure to reduce bleeding risk.
A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Take the medication at bedtime.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Take the medication as needed for pain relief.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Take the medication on an empty stomach. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works best when taken on an empty stomach, about 30 minutes before meals. This allows the medication to be absorbed effectively and provides optimal therapeutic effects in reducing stomach acid production. Taking it with food (choice A) may decrease its efficacy. Taking it at bedtime (choice B) is not ideal as it may not coincide with the peak acid production in the stomach. Taking it as needed for pain relief (choice D) is not appropriate as omeprazole is a scheduled medication for the management of peptic ulcer disease, not for immediate pain relief.
A client with severe anemia is being treated with a blood transfusion. Which assessment finding indicates a transfusion reaction?
- A. Elevated blood pressure.
- B. Fever and chills.
- C. Increased urine output.
- D. Bradycardia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever and chills. This indicates a transfusion reaction because it is a common symptom of hemolytic reactions, where the body is reacting to incompatible blood. Elevated blood pressure (A) is not typically a sign of a transfusion reaction. Increased urine output (C) is more likely a sign of fluid overload. Bradycardia (D) is not a common symptom of a transfusion reaction. Fever and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction due to the body's immune response to the blood transfusion.
A client with Addison's disease is being treated with fludrocortisone (Florinef). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia.
- B. Hyponatremia.
- C. Hypernatremia.
- D. Hypocalcemia.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypernatremia. Fludrocortisone is a mineralocorticoid that promotes sodium retention and potassium excretion, leading to an increase in sodium levels. Addison's disease involves low levels of cortisol and aldosterone, so fludrocortisone is used to replace aldosterone. Monitoring for hypernatremia is crucial to prevent complications like hypertension and fluid retention. Hyperkalemia (A) is not expected due to the drug's potassium-excreting effect. Hyponatremia (B) is unlikely as the drug promotes sodium retention. Hypocalcemia (D) is not directly related to fludrocortisone therapy.