A client with osteoporosis is being discharged home. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Avoid weight-bearing exercises.
- B. Take calcium supplements with meals.
- C. Limit vitamin D intake.
- D. Increase intake of caffeine-containing beverages.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Take calcium supplements with meals.
Rationale:
1. Calcium is essential for bone health and helps prevent osteoporosis.
2. Taking calcium with meals enhances absorption.
3. Adequate calcium intake is crucial for individuals with osteoporosis.
Summary:
A: Avoiding weight-bearing exercises is incorrect as they are beneficial for bone health.
C: Limiting vitamin D intake is incorrect as it is needed for calcium absorption.
D: Increasing caffeine intake is incorrect as it can decrease calcium absorption and worsen osteoporosis.
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A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Platelet count
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. International normalized ratio (INR)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy by assessing the clotting time. In patients with DVT receiving heparin, the goal is to keep the aPTT within a therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the dose of heparin is appropriate.
Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but does not directly assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy for DVT.
A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril (Prinivil). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Dry cough.
- B. Weight gain.
- C. Tachycardia.
- D. Hyperglycemia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a dry cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. This side effect can be bothersome and non-productive. Other choices are incorrect because weight gain is not a common side effect of lisinopril but rather a side effect of some other antihypertensive medications. Tachycardia is not associated with lisinopril; in fact, it can cause bradycardia in some cases. Hyperglycemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril and is more commonly associated with other classes of antihypertensive medications.
A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled to receive epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory result should the nurse review before administering the medication?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Creatinine clearance
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. Serum potassium
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin level. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys may not produce enough erythropoietin, leading to anemia. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production. Therefore, reviewing the hemoglobin level is crucial to determine the need for the medication.
Incorrect choices:
A: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and B: Creatinine clearance are indicators of kidney function but not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.
D: Serum potassium is important in renal failure but not specifically needed to review before administering epoetin alfa.
A client with Addison's disease is being treated with fludrocortisone (Florinef). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia.
- B. Hyponatremia.
- C. Hypernatremia.
- D. Hypocalcemia.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypernatremia. Fludrocortisone is a mineralocorticoid that promotes sodium retention and potassium excretion, leading to an increase in sodium levels. Addison's disease involves low levels of cortisol and aldosterone, so fludrocortisone is used to replace aldosterone. Monitoring for hypernatremia is crucial to prevent complications like hypertension and fluid retention. Hyperkalemia (A) is not expected due to the drug's potassium-excreting effect. Hyponatremia (B) is unlikely as the drug promotes sodium retention. Hypocalcemia (D) is not directly related to fludrocortisone therapy.
A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Weight loss
- C. Hyperactivity
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperglycemia. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic medication known to cause metabolic side effects such as hyperglycemia. The nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of high blood sugar levels, such as increased thirst, frequent urination, and fatigue. Hypertension (choice A) is not a common side effect of risperidone. Weight loss (choice B) is less likely as risperidone is associated with weight gain. Hyperactivity (choice C) is not a typical side effect of risperidone. Therefore, monitoring for hyperglycemia is essential in clients taking risperidone.
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