A 10-year-old boy breaks his mother's vase while playing. When the mother asks who broke the vase, the little boy says that his sister did it. The little boy is exhibiting which defense mechanism?
- A. Projection
- B. Displacement
- C. Dissociation
- D. Sublimation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Projection is a defense mechanism where one attributes their own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, or impulses onto another person. In this scenario, the little boy is projecting his actions onto his sister by falsely claiming she broke the vase. Displacement involves transferring emotions from the original source to a substitute target. Dissociation is a disconnection between thoughts, identity, consciousness, and memory. Sublimation is the redirection of unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities.
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In a center for women who have been abused, which intervention would the nurse use for a woman whose husband has been abusing her for several years?
- A. Often times you don't need help, you just need to know when to go
- B. Under these circumstances, leaving your husband is the decision to make
- C. This must be very painful for you. We are here to help you
- D. Let's talk about your strengths. You have them, but sometimes they get lost in pain
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the most appropriate intervention when working with a woman who has been abused by her husband. It acknowledges the woman's pain, expresses empathy, and offers support, creating a safe space for her to open up and seek help. This response shows understanding and compassion, which are crucial when dealing with individuals experiencing abuse.
During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?
- A. Chlorpromazine
- B. Phenelzine
- C. Haloperidol
- D. Olanzapine
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.
The client recently survived a plane crash and is assessed by the nurse. Which client statement would cause the nurse to suspect that the client may be experiencing PTSD?
- A. I believe that I was meant to survive this accident so that I can focus on the important things in life
- B. Although I have nightmares sometimes, I have started going to church to show gratitude for surviving the crash
- C. I am so afraid that I will never be able to fly again, but I know that it will take a while
- D. I keep having these thoughts about the crash that just pop into my mind at random times
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Experiencing intrusive thoughts about a traumatic event, such as a plane crash, that occur unexpectedly and repeatedly is a common symptom of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD). These thoughts can be distressing and are often a key indicator of PTSD. Options A, B, and C demonstrate coping mechanisms and fears related to the traumatic event but do not specifically address the hallmark symptom of intrusive thoughts. Therefore, option D is the correct choice as it aligns with a potential symptom of PTSD.
Which medication would the nurse least likely use to provide immediate intervention for an angry psychotic client?
- A. Lithium
- B. Alprazolam
- C. Diphenhydramine
- D. Haloperidol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety disorders. While it may help calm an individual, it is not typically the first-line choice for managing acute agitation in a psychotic client. Haloperidol, on the other hand, is a typical antipsychotic medication often used for immediate intervention in psychiatric emergencies involving aggression or psychosis.
A client is experiencing progressive changes in memory that have interfered with personal, social, and occupational functioning. The client exhibits poor judgment and has a short attention span. The nurse recognizes these as classic signs of which condition?
- A. Delirium
- B. Mania
- C. Parkinsonism
- D. Alzheimer's
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client's presentation of progressive memory changes, poor judgment, and attention deficits align with classic signs of Alzheimer's disease. Alzheimer's is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by cognitive decline that significantly impacts daily functioning. While delirium and mania may present with cognitive changes, Alzheimer's is specifically associated with progressive memory loss and cognitive impairment over time.