A nursing instructor is teaching a group of students about intimate partner violence. Which response by the students indicates no further teaching is needed?
- A. Alaska Native women report the highest rate of intimate partner violence.
- B. Caucasian women report the lowest rate of intimate partner violence.
- C. African American women report the highest rate of intimate partner violence.
- D. Asian women report the lowest rate of intimate partner violence.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alaska Native women do report the highest rate of intimate partner violence. This statistic is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of to provide culturally sensitive care and interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect statements. While it is essential to understand disparities in intimate partner violence rates among different populations, in this context, the focus is on recognizing the accurate information provided about Alaska Native women.
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A client is experiencing progressive changes in memory that have interfered with personal, social, and occupational functioning. The client exhibits poor judgment and has a short attention span. The nurse recognizes these as classic signs of which condition?
- A. Delirium
- B. Mania
- C. Parkinsonism
- D. Alzheimer's
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client's presentation of progressive memory changes, poor judgment, and attention deficits align with classic signs of Alzheimer's disease. Alzheimer's is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by cognitive decline that significantly impacts daily functioning. While delirium and mania may present with cognitive changes, Alzheimer's is specifically associated with progressive memory loss and cognitive impairment over time.
During the assessment of an adolescent who collapsed during Olympic figure skating training and was diagnosed with severe malnutrition due to anorexia nervosa, which client statement supports the use of a family-based approach?
- A. I eat just as much as everyone else on the team
- B. I'm tired of fighting with my parents about eating
- C. I just didn't drink enough water during practice
- D. I have to practice until my skating routine is perfect
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The statement 'I'm tired of fighting with my parents about eating' indicates a struggle related to food and parental conflicts, suggesting family dynamics play a role in the client's eating disorder. In cases of anorexia nervosa in adolescents, involving the family in the treatment process through a family-based approach has shown to be effective. This approach recognizes the influence of family interactions on the development and maintenance of eating disorders, aiming to improve communication, support, and understanding within the family unit to facilitate recovery.
Which medication would the nurse least likely use to provide immediate intervention for an angry psychotic client?
- A. Lithium
- B. Alprazolam
- C. Diphenhydramine
- D. Haloperidol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety disorders. While it may help calm an individual, it is not typically the first-line choice for managing acute agitation in a psychotic client. Haloperidol, on the other hand, is a typical antipsychotic medication often used for immediate intervention in psychiatric emergencies involving aggression or psychosis.
During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?
- A. Chlorpromazine
- B. Phenelzine
- C. Haloperidol
- D. Olanzapine
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.
After 1 week of continuous mental confusion, an elderly African American client is
admitted with a preliminary diagnosis of a neurocognitive disorder due to dementia.
Which statement would cause the nurse to question this diagnosis?
- A. There has been no triiodothyronine or thyroxine level evaluation ordered
- B. Neurocognitive disorders do not typically occur in African American clients
- C. The symptoms presented are more indicative of parkinsonism
- D. Dementia does not develop suddenly
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: