A 10-year-old boy presents with a history of central abdominal pain of a few hours' duration. On examination he has minimal tenderness in the right iliac fossa and no abnormal findings on rectal examination. Which of the following alternatives should be carried out?
- A. Arrange a barium meal follow through.
- B. Arrange to see the patient later on in the day for review.
- C. Send the patient away with instructions to return if the pain becomes worse.
- D. Tell the patient to come back in a week.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Early appendicitis can present subtly. Minimal right iliac fossa tenderness warrants observation, so reviewing later (B) is appropriate. Imaging (A), dismissal (C, D), or immediate surgery (E) without further assessment are not justified yet.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client has been admitted with disorganized type schizophrenia. The nurse observes blunted affect and social isolation. He occasionally curses or calls another client a 'jerk' without provocation. The nurse asks the client how he is feeling, and he responds, 'Everybody picks on me. They frobitz me.' The nurse would assess 'frobitz' as:
- A. Circumstantial speech
- B. Loose associations
- C. Evidence of delusional thinking
- D. A neologism
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: A neologism. A neologism is a newly created word or phrase that is unique to the individual and not understandable to others. In this scenario, the client's use of the word 'frobitz' is an example of a neologism. This demonstrates disorganized thinking and language typical of schizophrenia.
A: Circumstantial speech involves providing unnecessary details before reaching the main point, which is not evident in the client's response.
B: Loose associations involve a lack of logical connection between thoughts, which is not demonstrated by the client's use of 'frobitz.'
C: Delusional thinking involves fixed false beliefs, which are not explicitly present in the client's response.
In summary, the client's use of 'frobitz' indicates a neologism, reflecting disorganized thinking in schizophrenia, making it the correct assessment.
A history reveals that a patient virtually stopped eating 5 months ago and lost 25% of body weight. The nurse says, 'Describe what you think about your present weight and how you look.' Which response would be most consistent with anorexia nervosa?
- A. I'm fat and ugly.'
- B. What I think about myself is my business.'
- C. I'm grossly underweight, but I cover it well.'
- D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. This response is most consistent with anorexia nervosa because it reflects a distorted body image common in individuals with this condition. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image, leading to extreme weight loss and restrictive eating habits. Choice B suggests a lack of insight or denial, which is not typical of anorexia nervosa. Choice C acknowledges being underweight but does not reflect the negative body image associated with anorexia nervosa. Choice D is incorrect as option A aligns with the characteristic body image distortion seen in anorexia nervosa.
A 19-year-old client is admitted for the second time in 9 months and is acutely psychotic with a diagnosis of undifferentiated schizophrenia. The client sits alone rubbing her arms and smiling. She tells the nurse her thoughts cause earthquakes and that the world is burning. The nurse assesses the primary deficit associated with the client's condition as:
- A. Altered mood states
- B. Disturbed thinking
- C. Social isolation
- D. Poor impulse control
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disturbed thinking. This is because the client's belief that her thoughts cause earthquakes and the world is burning indicates a break from reality, a hallmark of psychosis in schizophrenia. This demonstrates disorganized and illogical thinking, a key symptom of disturbed thinking. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Altered mood states typically refer to emotional disturbances, which are not the primary deficit in this scenario; C) Social isolation is a consequence of the client's symptoms but not the primary deficit; D) Poor impulse control is not the primary deficit in this case as the client's behavior is more indicative of disorganized thinking.
The affective losses of Alzheimer's disease refer to losses noticed in the individual's:
- A. Personality
- B. Thought processes
- C. Ability to make and carry out plans
- D. Self-care
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The affective losses of Alzheimer's disease refer to changes in emotions and mood, impacting personality traits. This is because the disease affects areas of the brain responsible for regulating emotions. Personality changes are commonly observed in individuals with Alzheimer's. Thought processes (choice B) are more related to cognitive decline, while ability to make and carry out plans (choice C) and self-care (choice D) are more associated with functional decline. Therefore, choice A is correct as it specifically addresses the affective aspect of the disease.
Select the best comment for a nurse to begin an interview with an elderly patient.
- A. I am a nurse. Are you familiar with what nurses do?
- B. Hello. I am going to ask you some questions to get to know you better.
- C. You look comfortable and ready to participate in an admission interview. Shall we get started?
- D. Hello. My name is_____ and I am a nurse. How you would like to be addressed by staff?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it establishes the nurse's identity and shows respect by asking the patient's preference for addressing them. This approach sets a positive tone and promotes patient-centered care. Option A is incorrect as it assumes the patient's familiarity with nurses. Option B lacks professionalism and fails to acknowledge the purpose of the interview. Option C assumes the patient's readiness without confirming it directly and may come off as presumptuous.
Nokea