Nokea
A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Apply firm pressure to the injection site following administration
- B. Administer the medication into the client's muscle
- C. Expel the air bubble from the syringe prior to injection
- D. Insert the syringe needle halfway into the client's skin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A: Apply firm pressure to the injection site following administration.
Rationale: Applying firm pressure to the injection site following administration of enoxaparin helps minimize the risk of bleeding, as enoxaparin is an anticoagulant medication. This pressure promotes clot formation and reduces the likelihood of bruising or hematoma formation at the injection site.
Summary of other choices:
B: Administer the medication into the client's muscle - Incorrect. Enoxaparin is a subcutaneous medication, not meant for intramuscular administration.
C: Expel the air bubble from the syringe prior to injection - Good practice but not directly related to the administration of enoxaparin.
D: Insert the syringe needle halfway into the client's skin - Incorrect. The needle should be fully inserted for proper subcutaneous injection.
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A nurse is consulting a formulary about a client's new prescription for raloxifene. The nurse should identify that this medication is used to treat which of the following conditions?
- A. Osteoporosis
- B. Hypothyroidism
- C. Urinary tract infection
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Osteoporosis. Raloxifene is a medication used to prevent and treat osteoporosis by increasing bone density. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that mimics estrogen's effects on bone without affecting other tissues like the uterus. This helps to reduce the risk of fractures in postmenopausal women. Choices B, C, D, E, F, and G are incorrect because raloxifene is not indicated for hypothyroidism, urinary tract infections, or any other conditions besides osteoporosis.
A nurse is discussing adverse reactions to pain medications in older adult clients with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as risk factors for an adverse drug reaction? (SATA)
- A. Polypharmacy
- B. Increased rate of absorption
- C. Decreased percentage of body fat
- D. Multiple health problems
Correct Answer: A,C,D,E
Rationale: To determine risk factors for adverse drug reactions in older adults, consider the following:
A: Polypharmacy increases the likelihood of drug interactions and adverse effects.
C: Decreased body fat can affect drug distribution, leading to higher drug concentrations.
D: Multiple health problems may require multiple medications, increasing the risk of adverse reactions.
E: Age-related changes in liver and kidney function can affect drug metabolism and excretion.
Other choices are incorrect because increased rate of absorption does not necessarily increase risk and choices F and G were not provided.
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following predisposes this client to developing digoxin toxicity?
- A. Taking a high ceiling diuretic
- B. Having a 10-year history of COPD
- C. Having a prolapsed mitral valve
- D. Taking an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Taking a high ceiling diuretic. High ceiling diuretics, such as furosemide, can lead to hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin competes with potassium for binding sites on the Na+/K+-ATPase pump in the heart, so low potassium levels can lead to an increased concentration of digoxin in the body, predisposing the client to toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly impact digoxin levels or toxicity. A history of COPD (B) or a prolapsed mitral valve (C) do not specifically predispose a client to digoxin toxicity. Taking an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (D) does not interact directly with digoxin.
A nurse is receiving a medication prescription by telephone from a provider. The provider states, 'Administer 6 milligrams of morphine IV push every 3 hours as needed for acute pain.' How should the nurse transcribe the prescription in the client's medical record?
- A. Morphine 6 mg IV push every 3 hr PRN acute pain
- B. MSO 6 mg IV push every 3 hr PRN acute pain
- C. MS 6 mg IV push every 3 hr PRN acute pain
- D. Morphine 6.0 mg IV push every 3 hr PRN acute pain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Morphine 6 mg IV push every 3 hr PRN acute pain. This transcription accurately reflects the medication (morphine), dose (6 mg), route (IV push), frequency (every 3 hours), and indication (acute pain). "PRN" indicates as needed. Choice B is incorrect because "MSO" is not morphine. Choice C is incorrect because "MS" is not specific to morphine. Choice D is incorrect because adding a decimal point (6.0 mg) is unnecessary and can lead to dosing errors.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving gentamicin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor the client for?
- A. Prostephobia
- B. Tireibus
- C. Polyuria
- D. Tathyramda
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Polyuria. Gentamicin is an antibiotic known to potentially cause kidney damage, leading to impaired kidney function and decreased urine output. Therefore, monitoring for polyuria (excessive urine output) is crucial to assess the client's renal function. Prostephobia, Tireibus, and Tathyramda are not known side effects or complications associated with gentamicin use. Prostephobia is not a medical term, and Tireibus and Tathyramda are not relevant to gentamicin therapy. The nurse should focus on monitoring the client for signs of kidney damage, such as changes in urine output, in this scenario.