Nokea
A nurse is administering 4 mg of hydromorphone to a client by mouth every 4 hr. The medication is provided as hydromorphone 8 mg per tablet. Which of the following actions is appropriate for the nurse to take?
- A. Return the remaining medication to the facility's pharmacy.
- B. Store the remaining half of the pill in the automated medication dispensing system.
- C. Place the remaining half of the pill in the unit dose package.
- D. Dispose of the remaining medication while another nurse observes.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dispose of the remaining medication while another nurse observes. This is the appropriate action because hydromorphone is a controlled substance with high abuse potential. The nurse should follow proper medication disposal protocols to prevent diversion or misuse. Returning the medication to the pharmacy (choice A) may not ensure proper disposal. Storing the remaining half of the pill in the automated medication dispensing system (choice B) or placing it in the unit dose package (choice C) could lead to unauthorized access. Disposing of the medication while another nurse observes (choice D) ensures accountability and adherence to safety measures.
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A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for theophylline, a sustained-released capsule. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I can take my medication in the morning with my coffee.
- B. I may sprinkle the medication in applesauce.
- C. I should limit my fluid intake while on this medication.
- D. I will need to have blood levels drawn.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Answer D is correct because monitoring blood levels is crucial for theophylline therapy due to its narrow therapeutic range. Regular monitoring helps ensure the drug is at a safe and effective level in the body. Taking the medication with food or fluids, as indicated in choices A and C, can affect its absorption or metabolism, leading to suboptimal effects or toxicity. Sprinkling the medication in applesauce, as in choice B, can alter the drug's sustained-release mechanism, causing rapid release and possible adverse effects. Therefore, choice D is the best option for ensuring theophylline therapy's safety and efficacy.
A nurse is assessing a client who has hypermagnesemia. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Protamine sulfate
- B. Acetylcysteine
- C. Calcium gluconate
- D. Flumazenil
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Calcium gluconate. In hypermagnesemia, there is an excess of magnesium in the blood, leading to muscle weakness, cardiac arrhythmias, and respiratory depression. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for hypermagnesemia as it works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium. By administering calcium gluconate, the nurse can help reverse the symptoms associated with hypermagnesemia and restore normal calcium levels in the body. Protamine sulfate (Choice A) is used to reverse the effects of heparin, acetylcysteine (Choice B) is used as an antidote for acetaminophen overdose, and flumazenil (Choice D) is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines. These medications are not indicated for hypermagnesemia.
A client who has active tuberculosis and is taking rifampin reports that his urine and sweat have developed a red tinge. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Check the client's liver function test results.
- B. Instruct the client to increase his fluid intake.
- C. Document this as an expected finding.
- D. Prepare the client for dialysis.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): Document this as an expected finding. Rifampin is known to cause harmless discoloration of bodily fluids like urine and sweat. This is a common side effect and does not indicate any serious issues. The nurse should document this finding to track the client's response to the medication and educate the client about it.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Checking liver function test results is not necessary for the red discoloration caused by rifampin.
B: Increasing fluid intake will not resolve the red tinge as it is a known side effect of rifampin.
D: Dialysis is not indicated for the harmless discoloration caused by rifampin.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking amitriptyline. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Total bilirubin 1.5 mg/dL
- B. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
- C. Hct 0.44%
- D. WBC count 5
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Total bilirubin levels should be reported because amitriptyline can cause hepatotoxicity. Elevated bilirubin could indicate liver damage. Option B, potassium level, is not typically affected by amitriptyline. Option C, hematocrit, and option D, WBC count, are not directly related to amitriptyline use. Options E, F, and G are not provided. In summary, the nurse should report elevated total bilirubin levels due to potential hepatotoxicity from amitriptyline.
A nurse is preparing to initiate IV therapy for a client. Which of the following sites should the nurse use to place the peripheral IV catheter?
- A. Nondominant dorsal venous arch
- B. Dominant distal dorsal vein
- C. Nondominant forearm basilic vein
- D. Dominant antecubital vein
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nondominant dorsal venous arch. This site is preferred for peripheral IV catheter placement due to the larger vein diameter, ease of access, and reduced risk of complications like nerve damage or infiltration. The nondominant side is chosen to prevent disruption of daily activities. The dorsal venous arch is a superficial vein that is easily visible and palpable, making it suitable for successful cannulation. It also allows for optimal flow rate and minimizes the risk of phlebitis. Choices B, C, and D are not ideal for various reasons such as smaller vein size, increased risk of nerve damage, and difficulty in accessing or securing the catheter.