Nokea
A 14-year-old is brought to the clinic by her mother. The mother explains to the nurse that her daughter has just started using tampons, but is not yet sexually active. The mother states I am very concerned because my daughter is having a lot of stabbing pain and burning. What might the nurse suspect is theproblem with the 14-year-old?
- A. Vulvitis
- B. Vulvodynia
- C. Vaginitis
- D. Bartholins cyst
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vulvodynia. Vulvodynia is characterized by chronic vulvar pain or discomfort, including stabbing pain and burning, without an identifiable cause. In this case, the young girl is experiencing these symptoms despite not being sexually active, ruling out other conditions like vulvitis (inflammation of the vulva), vaginitis (inflammation of the vagina), and Bartholin's cyst (fluid-filled swelling near the vaginal opening). The absence of sexual activity suggests that the pain is not related to an infection or trauma, further supporting the diagnosis of vulvodynia.
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A nurse providing prenatal care to a pregnant woman is addressing measures to reduce her postpartum risk of cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse. What action should the nurse recommend?
- A. Maintenance of good perineal hygiene
- B. Prevention of constipation
- C. Increased fluid intake for 2 weeks postpartum
- D. Performance of pelvic muscle exercises Chapter 58: Breast Cancer: Breast cancer – risks factors, Diagnostic tests and management, Self Breast Exam, Perioperative care: Complications, Rehab, Discharge teaching
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, performance of pelvic muscle exercises. Pelvic muscle exercises, also known as Kegel exercises, help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles which support the bladder, uterus, and bowel. By strengthening these muscles, the risk of developing cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse postpartum is reduced. It is a proactive approach to prevent these conditions.
Choice A, maintenance of good perineal hygiene, is important for preventing infections but does not specifically address the risk of pelvic organ prolapse. Choice B, prevention of constipation, is also important but does not directly target the muscle weakness that contributes to prolapse. Choice C, increased fluid intake for 2 weeks postpartum, is not as effective in preventing prolapse as pelvic muscle exercises.
In summary, pelvic muscle exercises are the most appropriate recommendation as they directly address strengthening the muscles that support the pelvic organs, reducing the risk of prolapse postpartum.
A 60-year-old man presents at the clinic complaining that his breasts are tender and enlarging. The patient is subsequently diagnosed with gynecomastia. The patient should be assessed for the possibility of what causative factor?
- A. Age-related physiologic changes
- B. Medication adverse effects
- C. Poor nutrition
- D. Fluid overload
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medication adverse effects. Gynecomastia in a 60-year-old man is often caused by medications like spironolactone, cimetidine, and certain antipsychotics. To determine the causative factor, a thorough medication history review is crucial. Age-related physiologic changes (choice A) do not typically lead to gynecomastia in men. Poor nutrition (choice C) and fluid overload (choice D) are not common causes of gynecomastia in this context.
A nurse has asked the nurse educator if there is any way to predict the severity of a patients anaphylactic reaction. What would be the nurses best response?
- A. The faster the onset of symptoms, the more severe the reaction.
- B. The reaction will be about one-third more severe than the patients last reaction to the same antigen.
- C. There is no way to gauge the severity of a patients anaphylaxis, even if it has occurred repeatedly in the past.
- D. The reaction will generally be slightly less severe than the last reaction to the same antigen.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the severity of an anaphylactic reaction can vary greatly from one episode to another in the same patient. Anaphylactic reactions are unpredictable and can be influenced by various factors such as the amount of allergen exposure, individual immune response, underlying health conditions, and concurrent medications. Therefore, it is not possible to reliably gauge the severity of a patient's anaphylactic reaction even if it has occurred repeatedly in the past.
Choice A is incorrect because the onset of symptoms alone is not a reliable predictor of the severity of the reaction. Choice B is incorrect as well because there is no set formula to predict that the reaction will be one-third more severe than the patient's last reaction. Choice D is incorrect because stating that the reaction will generally be slightly less severe than the last reaction is also not accurate or supported by evidence.
A patient who has AIDS has been admitted for the treatment of Kaposis sarcoma. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse associate with this complication of AIDS?
- A. Risk for Disuse Syndrome Related to Kaposis Sarcoma B)Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Kaposis Sarcoma C)Diarrhea Related to Kaposis Sarcoma
- B. Impaired Swallowing Related to Kaposis Sarcoma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Kaposis Sarcoma. Kaposis sarcoma can cause skin lesions that may lead to impaired skin integrity due to tissue breakdown. The nurse should prioritize interventions to prevent infection and promote wound healing.
Choice A is incorrect because Disuse Syndrome is not directly related to Kaposis Sarcoma. Choice C, Diarrhea, is not a common complication of Kaposis Sarcoma. Choice D, Impaired Swallowing, is not typically associated with Kaposis Sarcoma.
A patient presents to the ED complaining of a sudden onset of incapacitating vertigo, with nausea and vomiting and tinnitus. The patient mentions to the nurse that she suddenly cannot hear very well. What would the nurse suspect the patients diagnosis will be?
- A. Ossiculitis
- B. Mnires disease
- C. Ototoxicity
- D. Labyrinthitis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Labyrinthitis. This condition presents with sudden onset vertigo, nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, and hearing loss, which are all symptoms described by the patient. Labyrinthitis is commonly caused by a viral infection affecting the inner ear, leading to inflammation of the labyrinth. This inflammation disrupts the balance and hearing functions of the inner ear, resulting in the symptoms mentioned.
A: Ossiculitis involves inflammation of the middle ear bones, typically causing conductive hearing loss, not the sudden onset of vertigo and other symptoms described.
B: Mnire's disease is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss, but it typically does not present with sudden onset incapacitating vertigo.
C: Ototoxicity is caused by exposure to certain medications or chemicals that damage the inner ear structures, leading to hearing loss. While hearing loss is a symptom, the sudden onset of vertigo is not typically associated with ototoxicity.