Nokea
A 16-year-old boy from the rural area entered the technical school. During a regular Mantoux test, it turned out that this boy had a negative reaction. What tactics should the doctor choose as the most rational in this case?
- A. Repeat the test in a month
- B. Serodiagnosis of tuberculosis
- C. Urgent isolation of the boy from his groupmates
- D. BCG vaccination
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: BCG vaccination. BCG vaccination is recommended for individuals with a negative Mantoux test result, especially in countries where tuberculosis is prevalent. This vaccination can help provide protection against tuberculosis.
Choice A is incorrect because repeating the Mantoux test in a month is unnecessary since the boy already had a negative reaction.
Choice B is incorrect as serodiagnosis of tuberculosis is not the first-line approach for diagnosis, especially in this scenario.
Choice C is incorrect because urgent isolation is not necessary based solely on the Mantoux test result. Isolation is typically reserved for individuals with active tuberculosis.
You may also like to solve these questions
The most common congenital infection worldwide is due to:
- A. CMV
- B. Listeria monocytogenes
- C. Rubella Virus
- D. Syphilis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CMV (Cytomegalovirus). CMV is the most common congenital infection worldwide due to its high prevalence and ability to be transmitted from mother to fetus during pregnancy. It can lead to serious complications such as hearing loss, developmental delays, and vision problems in newborns. Listeria monocytogenes (B) is a foodborne pathogen, not typically associated with congenital infections. Rubella Virus (C) can cause congenital rubella syndrome but is less common globally compared to CMV. Syphilis (D) can also be transmitted from mother to fetus, but its prevalence and impact on congenital infections are lower compared to CMV.
A 23 year old female patient complains about periodical chill and body temperature rise up to 40oC, sense of heat taking turns with profuse sweating. The patient has had already 3 attacks that came once in two days and lasted 12 hours. She has lived in Africa for the last 2 months. Liver and spleen are enlarged. In blood: erythrocytes - 2,5x1012/l. What is the most probable diagnosis?
- A. Malaria
- B. Spotted fever
- C. Sepsis
- D. Haemolytic anaemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is A: Malaria. The patient's symptoms of periodic chills, high fever, and profuse sweating, along with living in Africa where malaria is endemic, strongly suggest malaria. The enlarged liver and spleen are consistent with malaria infection. The low erythrocyte count indicates hemolysis, a common feature of malaria. Spotted fever and sepsis do not typically present with the same pattern of symptoms and travel history as seen in this case. Haemolytic anaemia would not explain the patient's fever episodes and other symptoms. Therefore, based on the symptoms, travel history, and laboratory findings, malaria is the most likely diagnosis.
Which type of bacteria can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic environments?
- A. Obligate aerobes
- B. Facultative anaerobes
- C. Obligate anaerobes
- D. Microaerophiles
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is B: Facultative anaerobes. Facultative anaerobes can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic environments due to their ability to switch between utilizing oxygen for respiration in aerobic conditions and utilizing fermentation or anaerobic respiration in anaerobic conditions. This flexibility allows them to thrive in diverse environments.
Explanation for incorrect choices:
A: Obligate aerobes require oxygen for respiration and cannot survive in anaerobic environments.
C: Obligate anaerobes can only survive in the absence of oxygen and would not thrive in aerobic conditions.
D: Microaerophiles require low levels of oxygen to grow and are not as versatile in adapting to varying oxygen levels compared to facultative anaerobes.
Which of the following viruses can cause hemorrhagic cystitis in immunocompromised patients:
- A. EBV
- B. BKV
- C. HSV1
- D. JCV
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: BKV. BK virus can cause hemorrhagic cystitis in immunocompromised patients by infecting the urinary tract. It primarily affects the renal tubular epithelial cells, leading to hemorrhagic cystitis. EBV (A) causes infectious mononucleosis, HSV1 (C) causes oral and genital herpes, and JCV (D) causes progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy, none of which are associated with hemorrhagic cystitis.
A pregnant woman complains of vaginal mucosa irritation, itching and genital tracts secretion. Bacterioscopy of vaginal smears revealed large gram-positive oval oblong cells that form pseudomicelium. What is the most probable channel of infection?
- A. Endogenous infection
- B. Sexual transmission
- C. Contact infection
- D. Vector-borne transmission
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sexual transmission. The symptoms described are indicative of a vaginal yeast infection caused by Candida albicans. The presence of large gram-positive oval oblong cells forming pseudomycelium is characteristic of Candida infection. Sexual transmission is the most probable channel of infection as Candida can be transmitted through sexual contact. Endogenous infection (A) refers to infections originating from the body's own flora, which is not the case here. Contact infection (C) typically involves direct physical contact or fomite transmission, which is less likely in this scenario. Vector-borne transmission (D) involves transmission through vectors like mosquitoes or ticks, which is not relevant in this case.